Butis really so easy? (Möbius inversion)

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Möbius inversion formula, specifically the relationship between the functions F(x) and G(x) defined as F(x) = G(ax) + G(2ax) + G(3ax) + ... for n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ... where 'a' is a fixed real number. The formula G(ax) = ∑_{n=1}^{∞} μ(n) F(nx) is presented as a straightforward application of the Möbius inversion, prompting participants to explore its validity. The simplicity of the formula raises questions about its intuitive grasp and practical application in number theory.

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But..is really so easy? (Möbius inversion), let be F(x) and G(x) functions

[tex]F(x)= G(ax)+G(2ax)+G(3ax)+...[/tex]

for n=,1,2,3,4,5,... a is a fixed real number. then

[tex]G(ax)= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\mu (x) F(nx)[/tex]

is seems too easy for me, to be true.
 
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Why don't you try it? (You might want to make sure you state it properly.)
 

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