Calculating Limit of sin(1/x) - Product Law of Limits

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The limit of the expression \( \lim_{x \to 0} x^2 \sin \frac{1}{x} \) is determined using the product law of limits and the squeeze theorem. As \( x \) approaches 0, \( x^2 \) approaches 0 while \( \sin \frac{1}{x} \) remains bounded between -1 and 1. Therefore, the limit evaluates to 0. The discussion emphasizes the importance of recognizing that \( \lim_{x \to 0} \sin \frac{1}{x} \) does not exist, reinforcing the necessity of using the squeeze theorem for accurate evaluation.

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Homework Statement



Calculate \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0 } x^2 \sin \frac{1}{x}


Homework Equations



"product law" of limits I think


The Attempt at a Solution



I took a guess at 0, as 1/x would become very large as x goes to 0, so sin would become a maximum of 1 but x^2 would become 0.

Is this actually the correct way to solve this limit problem? How should I actually express the answer, just put 0 or is there some intermediate working that can be shown?
 
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Use the sandwich rule.

-x2 ≤ x2 sin(1/x) ≤ x2
 
username12345 said:
Calculate \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0 } x^2 \sin \frac{1}{x}

"product law" of limits I think

Is this actually the correct way to solve this limit problem? How should I actually express the answer, just put 0 or is there some intermediate working that can be shown?

Hi username12345! :smile:

Yes, the product law is the way …

just say it's lim{AB}, and |B| ≤ 1 … :wink:
 
I think you're tex'ing or mathml'ing is off, dx. Did you mean to write

-x^2 \le x^2\sin(1/x) \le x^2
 
Yes, thanks matt. I corrected it.
 
dx said:
Use the sandwich rule.

-x2 ≤ x2 sin(1/x) ≤ x2

The text I have has a "squeeze law" which I think is the same. Looks the same.
 
OK I am trying to use this sandwhich rule, but it doesn't make sense to me.

\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 1 } |x-1|\sin \frac{1}{x-1}

By the product rule |x-1| we'd get 0 so the limit would be zero, but for fun I try squeeze.

-|x-1| \leq \sin \frac{1}{x-1} \leq |x-1|
0 \leq \sin \frac{1}{x-1} \leq 0

so, \mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 1 } |x-1|\sin \frac{1}{x-1} = 0

What is odd to me is that as x tends to 1 \sin \frac{1}{x-1} is not 0. For example when x is .999999999999 the result is 0.98.
 
Is this a different question?

For the original question, technically you cannot use the product rule because

\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \sin \frac{1}{x}

doesn't exist.
 
  • #10
Yes, sorry, it is a different question.

You suggested to use sandwhich so rather than make a new thread I tried to apply it to a similar problem.
 
  • #11
Ok,

Do you understand why

-|x-1|≤ |x-1|sin(1/|x-1|) ≤ |x-1|?

You forgot the |x-1| in the middle multiplying sin(1/|x-1|).
 
  • #12
With |x-1| in the middle it makes more sense. My understanding though is limited to simply substituting x = 1 and evaluating the expression. I couldn't really explain it.

Thanks dx and to tiny-tim aswell.
 
  • #13
I would just say that the limit is zero because x^2 goes to zero and the function sin(1/x) is bounded.

And I don't know if you're interested, but you can show that the limit of sin(1/x) as x->0 doesn't exist by letting f(x)=sin(1/x) and finding a sequence (Sn) that goes to zero but f(Sn) doesn't converge.
 
  • #14
Shouldn't doing this work the same

x^2sin(\frac{1}{x})=x\frac{sin(\frac{1}{x})}{\frac{1}{x}}

and then just use the fact that

\lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x)g(x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow a}f(x) \times \lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x)
 
  • #15
rock.freak667 said:
Shouldn't doing this work the same

x^2sin(\frac{1}{x})=x\frac{sin(\frac{1}{x})}{\frac{1}{x}}

and then just use the fact that

\lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x)g(x) = \lim_{x \rightarrow a}f(x) \times \lim_{x \rightarrow a} g(x)

That's very clever.
 

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