MHB Can an analytic function on the half plane be represented by an integral?

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The discussion revolves around proving that an analytic function on the upper half-plane can be represented by an integral, specifically under the condition that the product of the function and a power of z remains bounded. The integral representation is given by f(z) = (1/2πi) ∫_{-∞}^∞ f(t)/(t - z) dt for Im(z) > 0. Ackbach successfully solved the problem, providing a correct solution that adheres to the specified conditions. The thread emphasizes the importance of understanding the properties of analytic functions and their integral representations. This topic highlights significant concepts in complex analysis.
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Let $f$ be an analytic function on the half plane $\Omega := \{z\in \Bbb C : \operatorname{Im}(z) \ge 0\}$ such that for some $\alpha > 0$ and $M > 0$, $\lvert z^\alpha f(z)\rvert < M$ for all $z\in \Omega$. Prove that $f$ has integral representation

$$f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{f(t)}{t - z}\, dt\quad (\operatorname{Im}(z) > 0)$$

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This week's problem was solved correctly by Ackbach. You can read his solution below.
Let $W=\{z\in\mathbb{C}:\operatorname{Im}(z)>0\}$ be the strict upper half plane. Since $f$ is analytic on $\Omega,$ it is analytic on $W$. Note that $W$ is an open subset of $\mathbb{C}.$ Let $z\in W$ be arbitrary, and given by $z=x+iy,\; y>0.$ Let $D$ be the closed disk $D=\{w:|w-z|\le y/2\},$ and let $\gamma$ be its boundary, oriented counterclockwise. Note that $D$ is completely contained in $W,$ and hence by the Cauchy Integral Formula we have that
$$f(z)=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint_{\gamma}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}. $$
Let $R>0$ such that $R^2>x^2+y^2,$ and consider the contour $\gamma'$ consisting of the straight line segment from $-R$ to $R,$ followed by the half-circle from $R$ back to $-R$ in the upper-half-plane. Because $f$ is analytic on $\Omega,$ and the only singularity of $f(t)/(t-z)$ is at $z,$ it follows from homotopy that
$$\oint_{\gamma}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}=\oint_{\gamma'}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}=\int_{-R}^{R}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}\,dt+\underbrace{\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{f(Re^{i\theta})}{Re^{i\theta}-z}\,i\,R e^{i\theta}\,d\theta}_{t=Re^{i\theta},\; dt=iRe^{i\theta}\,d\theta}.$$
We examine this second integral, the $d\theta$ integral, and use the $ML$ estimate:
\begin{align*}
\left|\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{f(Re^{i\theta})}{Re^{i\theta}-z}\,i\,R e^{i\theta}\,d\theta\right|&\le
\int_{0}^{\pi}\left|\frac{f(Re^{i\theta})}{Re^{i\theta}-z}\,i\,R e^{i\theta}\right|d\theta \\
&\le \int_{0}^{\pi}\left|\frac{f(Re^{i\theta})}{Re^{i\theta}-z}\,R\, \right|d\theta \\
&\le \int_{0}^{\pi}\left|\frac{M/R^{\alpha}}{e^{i\theta}-z/R}\, \right|d\theta \\
&\le \int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{M/R^{\alpha}}{1-|z|/R}\,d\theta \\
&=\pi\cdot\frac{M/R^{\alpha}}{1-|z|/R}.
\end{align*}
As $R\to\infty,$ the denominator approaches $1\not=0;$ in fact, we can bound it away from zero in magnitude. The numerator goes to zero as $R\to\infty.$

Hence, we would like to write
$$f(z)=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\lim_{R\to\infty}\int_{-R}^{R}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}\,dt=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}\,dt.$$
We just need to make sure this integral converges. But this must happen because of our previous formula:
\begin{align*}
\oint_{\gamma}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}&=\int_{-R}^{R}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}\,dt+\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{f(Re^{i\theta})}{Re^{i\theta}-z}\,i\,R e^{i\theta}\,d\theta \\
\lim_{R\to\infty}\oint_{\gamma}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}&=\lim_{R\to\infty}\int_{-R}^{R}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}\,dt+\lim_{R\to\infty}\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{f(Re^{i\theta})}{Re^{i\theta}-z}\,i\,R e^{i\theta}\,d\theta \\
\oint_{\gamma}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}&=\lim_{R\to\infty}\int_{-R}^{R}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}\,dt \\
\oint_{\gamma}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}&=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{f(t)}{t-z}\,dt,
\end{align*}
and the theorem is proved.
 

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