Can anybody help me to understand this proof?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof concerning a decreasing sequence of closed bounded nonempty sets in R^k and the nonemptiness of their intersection. Participants are examining the conditions under which a limit point of a convergent sequence belongs to a specific set within the sequence.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question why it suffices to show that a limit point x_0 belongs to a specific set F_n_0, suggesting that the reasoning is not clearly expressed in the original post.
  • Others argue that the convergence behavior of a sequence is not affected by its initial finite elements, implying that the limit point's membership in F_n_0 is sufficient for the proof.
  • There is a discussion about the use of LaTeX formatting in the posts, with participants providing guidance on how to properly format mathematical expressions.
  • One participant expresses confusion about the phrase "for each fixed n_0," seeking clarification on its meaning in the context of the proof.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the original post needs clarification, but there are differing interpretations of the proof's requirements and the implications of convergence. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the clarity of the proof and the specific conditions needed for the limit point's membership.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the original proof lacks clarity and may depend on the interpretation of convergence and the properties of closed sets. There are unresolved questions about the implications of the proof's statements and the use of mathematical notation.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for students or individuals studying real analysis, particularly those interested in the properties of sequences and set intersections in metric spaces.

Artusartos
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Let [itex](F_n)[/itex] be a decreasing sequence [i.e., F_1 contains F2 which contains F_3...etc] of closed bounded nonempty sets in [itex]R^k[/itex]. Then [itex]F = \cap^{\infty}_{m=1} F_n[/itex] is also closed, bounded and nonempty.

The proof (from our textbook) says:

Clearly F is closed and bounded. It is the nonemptiness that needs proving! For each n, select an element [itex](<b>x</b>_n)[/itex] in [itex]F_n[/itex]. By the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem 13.5, a subsequence [itex](<b>x</b>_n_m})^{\infty}_{m=1}[/itex] of [itex](<b>x</b>_n)[/itex] converges to some element [itex]<b>x</b>_0[/itex] in [itex]R^k[/itex]. To show [itex]<b>x</b>_0 \in F[/itex], it suffices to show [itex]<b>x</b>_0 \in F_n_0[/itex] with [itex]n_0[/itex] fixed.

Why does it suffice to show that?

If [itex]m \geq n_0[/itex], then [itex]n_m \geq n_0[/itex], so [itex]<b>x</b>_n_m \in F_n_m \subseteq F_n_0[/itex].

But what if m<n_0?

Hence the sequence [itex]{<b>x</b>_n_m}^{\infty}_{m=1}[/itex] consists of points in [itex]F_n_0[/itex] and converges to [itex]<b>x</b>_0[/itex]. Thus [itex]<b>x</b>_0[/itex] belongs to [itex]F_n_0[/itex] by (b) of proposition 13.9 (which says “The set E is closed if and only if it contains the limit ofevery convergent sequence of points in E.)

Thanks in advance
 
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Artusartos said:
Let [itex](F_n)[/itex] be a decreasing sequence [i.e., F_1 contains F2 which contains F_3...etc] of closed bounded nonempty sets in [itex]R^k[/itex]. Then [itex]F = \cap^{\infty}_{m=1} F_n[/itex] is also closed, bounded and nonempty.

The proof (from our textbook) says:

Clearly F is closed and bounded. It is the nonemptiness that needs proving! For each n, select an element [itex](<b>x</b>_n)[/itex] in [itex]F_n[/itex]. By the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem 13.5, a subsequence [itex](<b>x</b>_n_m})^{\infty}_{m=1}[/itex] of [itex](<b>x</b>_n)[/itex] converges to some element [itex]<b>x</b>_0[/itex] in [itex]R^k[/itex]. To show [itex]<b>x</b>_0 \in F[/itex], it suffices to show [itex]<b>x</b>_0 \in F_n_0[/itex] with [itex]n_0[/itex] fixed.

Why does it suffice to show that?

If [itex]m \geq n_0[/itex], then [itex]n_m \geq n_0[/itex], so [itex]<b>x</b>_n_m \in F_n_m \subseteq F_n_0[/itex].

But what if m<n_0?

Hence the sequence [itex]{<b>x</b>_n_m}^{\infty}_{m=1}[/itex] consists of points in [itex]F_n_0[/itex] and converges to [itex]<b>x</b>_0[/itex]. Thus [itex]<b>x</b>_0[/itex] belongs to [itex]F_n_0[/itex] by (b) of proposition 13.9 (which says “The set E is closed if and only if it contains the limit ofevery convergent sequence of points in E.)

Thanks in advance

As you could see, your post is very hard to understand. This wouldn't have happened had you used the "Preview Post" option before posting it.

There is no [tex]option here but itex enclosed in square parentheses. Please do fix your post.<br /> <br /> DonAntonio[/tex]
 
DonAntonio said:
As you could see, your post is very hard to understand. This wouldn't have happened had you used the "Preview Post" option before posting it.

There is no [tex]option here but itex enclosed in square parentheses. Please do fix your post.<br /> <br /> DonAntonio[/tex]
[tex] <br /> But I don't know how to use itex...??[/tex]
 
Inside [itex][/itex] you have to write in latex language.
 
Einj said:
Inside [itex][/itex] you have to write in latex language.

But I did do that...it still didn't change...
 
I agree that the post needs to be fixed, but I think I understand it as it is:


Artusartos said:
To show [itex]<b>x</b>_0 \in F[/itex], it suffices to show [itex]<b>x</b>_0 \in F_n_0[/itex] with [itex]n_0[/itex] fixed.

Why does it suffice to show that?
i agree that this is confusing. It is poorly expressed. The author must mean something like this:

To show x_0 in F, it suffices to show that for each fixed n_0: x_0 in F_n_0.
If [itex]m \geq n_0[/itex], then [itex]n_m \geq n_0[/itex], so [itex]<b>x</b>_n_m \in F_n_m \subseteq F_n_0[/itex].

But what if m<n_0?
This doesn't matter. The convergence behaviour of a sequence does not depend upon its first finite number of elements. If x1,x2,x3,x4,x5... converges to x, so does e.g. y1,y2,y3,x4,x5...
 
Erland said:
I agree that the post needs to be fixed, but I think I understand it as it is:



i agree that this is confusing. It is poorly expressed. The author must mean something like this:

To show x_0 in F, it suffices to show that for each fixed n_0: x_0 in F_n_0.

This doesn't matter. The convergence behaviour of a sequence does not depend upon its first finite number of elements. If x1,x2,x3,x4,x5... converges to x, so does e.g. y1,y2,y3,x4,x5...

Thanks for answering, but I'm not sure if I understood the first answer. What exactly does "for each fixed n_0" mean?
 
Artusartos said:
Thanks for answering, but I'm not sure if I understood the first answer. What exactly does "for each fixed n_0" mean?
That this should be proved for every number n_0 (which will be fixed in the succeeding part of the proof), not just that there is one n_0 for which this holds.
 

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