Can k(x) be Generated with Only One Rational Fraction?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the problem of proving that the field k(x) of rational functions over a field k in the variable x cannot be generated by a finite set of elements, specifically questioning whether it can be generated by only one rational fraction. The scope includes theoretical exploration and mathematical reasoning related to algebraic structures.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Peter seeks assistance in proving that k(x) is not a finitely generated k-algebra.
  • One participant suggests that any finite set of generators of k(x) would only produce a finite number of irreducible factors in the denominators.
  • Peter expresses confusion about the role of irreducible elements in the proof and requests further clarification.
  • A participant elaborates that if k(x) were generated by a single rational function, the resulting elements would have a denominator with a finite number of irreducible factors, implying that k(x) cannot be generated by just one rational fraction.
  • There is a reiteration of the idea that the number of irreducible polynomials in k(x) is infinite, supporting the argument against finite generation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the notion that k(x) cannot be generated by a single rational fraction due to the infinite nature of irreducible polynomials, but the discussion remains open regarding the formal proof and the implications of irreducibility.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve the formal proof steps or the specific definitions of irreducibility that may be necessary for a complete understanding of the problem.

Math Amateur
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I would be grateful if someone could get me started on the following problem:

"Prove that the field k(x) of rational functions over k in the variable x is not a finitely generated k-algebra." (Dummit and Foote Chapter 15, page 668)

Peter

[This has also been posted on MHF]
 
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Hint: Any finite set of generators of $k(x)$ only produce a finite number of irreducible factors in the denominators.
 
Fernando Revilla said:
Hint: Any finite set of generators of $k(x)$ only produce a finite number of irreducible factors in the denominators.

Thanks Fernando.

My apologies ... I need a little more help ... Can you start me on the formal proof ..

I also need some help as to why irreducible elements enter the picture ...

Peter
 
This is the idea: suppose for example that $k(x)$ is generated by only one $p_1(x)/q_1(x)\in k(x).$ This means that $k(x)=k\left[p_1(x)/q_1(x)\right].$ But the elements of $k\left[p_1(x)/q_1(x)\right]$ have the form
$$a_n\left(\dfrac{p_1(x)}{q_1(x)}\right)^n+\ldots+a_1\dfrac{p_1(x)}{q_1(x)}+a_0=\dfrac{p(x)}{\left(q_1(x)\right)^n}\quad (a_i\in k,\;p(x)\in k[x])$$
The denominator has a finite number of irreducible factors. This means that we can't generate $k(x)$ with only one rational fraction (the number of irreducible plolynomials in $k(x)$ is infinite). Try to generalize to any finite number of generators.
 
Fernando Revilla said:
This is the idea: suppose for example that $k(x)$ is generated by only one $p_1(x)/q_1(x)\in k(x).$ This means that $k(x)=k\left[p_1(x)/q_1(x)\right].$ But the elements of $k\left[p_1(x)/q_1(x)\right]$ have the form
$$a_n\left(\dfrac{p_1(x)}{q_1(x)}\right)^n+\ldots+a_1\dfrac{p_1(x)}{q_1(x)}+a_0=\dfrac{p(x)}{\left(q_1(x)\right)^n}\quad (a_i\in k,\;p(x)\in k[x])$$
The denominator has a finite number of irreducible factors. This means that we can't generate $k(x)$ with only one rational fraction (the number of irreducible plolynomials in $k(x)$ is infinite). Try to generalize to any finite number of generators.

Thanks Fernando, I appreciate your help.

Peter
 

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