I question the overall line of reasoning here. I also question the first sentence. Let me rephrase it using "parallel lines" rather than "math". When we study something, say parallel lines, we learn accepted axiomatic ideas. Aren't those very ideas what define parallel lines? This sounds strange to me because axioms developed for parallel lines have proven inadequate when one generalizes beyond flat "Euclidean" space. So I would reply no to the first question. When we study something, say physics, we learn accepted axiomatic ideas (E.g. Newtonian Mechanics). Aren't those ideas what define Physics? See, here I could reply yes Newtonian Mechanics does define Physics (say up until 1911) and then No, Newtonian Mechanics does not define Physics because it is insufficient or inadequate to do so (circa 1900). The axiomatic ideas define someone's conception or model of the object of study not the object itself. It's all made more confusing by using the word "study" here as well. Axioms have often been the end result of an inductive process and a way of succinctly describing an adequate model in a way that can be uncompressed using deduction. One is studying then, someone's model, not the object. The model may be inaccurate. When we study something (in a textbook), say the movement of the planets, we learn accepted axiomatic ideas (Ptolemy's epicycles). Aren't those very axiomatic ideas (Ptolemy's epicycles) what define the movement of the planets? Now, Einstein did claim that 'there is no inductive method which could lead to the fundamental ideas of physics", but there is also no guarantee that the axioms of the proposed model correspond to reality.