- #1
codiloo
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I fail to understand a step made in this proof:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convolution_theorem"
more specifically the last step where the integral is written as a product of 2 separate integrals (each equal to a Fourier transform):
from:
to:
I'm quite rusty on my integration, but as far I can remember this operation is only allowed when y is independent of x. (since y is taken out of an integral over x). But since we substituted y = z − x this is not the case. Can somebody explain me why this step is correct? (and why I'm wrong)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convolution_theorem"
more specifically the last step where the integral is written as a product of 2 separate integrals (each equal to a Fourier transform):
from:
to:
I'm quite rusty on my integration, but as far I can remember this operation is only allowed when y is independent of x. (since y is taken out of an integral over x). But since we substituted y = z − x this is not the case. Can somebody explain me why this step is correct? (and why I'm wrong)
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