Can you evaluate this integral using series and historical methods?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral $\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$. Participants explore various methods, including series expansions, contour integration, and historical approaches, while sharing their attempts and challenges in solving the integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Historical

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants suggest using partial fractions to decompose the integrand, noting the factorization of $x^3 + 1$.
  • Others propose using contour integration or the Beta function to evaluate the integral, providing a specific result involving the Gamma function.
  • A participant mentions their lack of familiarity with complex analysis methods, indicating that they are in a first calculus course.
  • Several participants share their attempts at solving the integral, including screenshots of their work, but express confusion or errors in their calculations.
  • One participant introduces a series expansion approach, discussing the convergence and the need to split the integral into two parts for evaluation.
  • Historical context is provided, referencing the calculus battle between Leibniz and Newton regarding similar integrals and series evaluations.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the best method to evaluate the integral, with multiple competing approaches and some expressing uncertainty in their calculations.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note limitations in their understanding of complex analysis and series expansions, which may affect their ability to fully engage with the proposed methods. There are also unresolved mathematical steps in the attempts shared.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be of interest to students and enthusiasts of calculus, particularly those exploring integral evaluation techniques and the historical context of mathematical methods.

vilhelm
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Would be very grateful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$
 
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oooppp2 said:
Would be very greatful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$

$x^3+1$ has the root $x=-1$.
Therefore we can factorize it:
$$x^3 + 1 = (x+1)(x^2-x+1)$$
Next step is partial fractions...
 
oooppp2 said:
Would be very greatful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$

It can be solved by contour integration or by Beta function .

$$ \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3} =\frac{1}{3} \int_0^\infty \frac{x^{\frac{1}{3}-1}}{1+x } dx =\frac{1}{3} \Gamma \left( \frac{1}{3}\right) \Gamma \left(1- \frac{1}{3}\right) = \frac{\pi }{3 \sin \left (\frac{\pi }{3} \right) } = \frac{2\pi }{3 \sqrt{3}}$$
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
It can be solved by contour integration or by Beta function .

$$ \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3} =\frac{1}{3} \int_0^\infty \frac{x^{\frac{1}{3}-1}}{1+x } dx =\frac{1}{3} \Gamma \left( \frac{1}{3}\right) \Gamma \left(1- \frac{1}{3}\right) = \frac{\pi }{3 \sin \left (\frac{\pi }{3} \right) } = \frac{2\pi }{3 \sqrt{3}}$$

First calculus course, so I have not learned that.

- - - Updated - - -

I like Serena said:
$x^3+1$ has the root $x=-1$.
Therefore we can factorize it:
$$x^3 + 1 = (x+1)(x^2-x+1)$$
Next step is partial fractions...

Thanks, I'll try it and update with my progress.
 
oooppp2 said:
First calculus course, so I have not learned that.

I hope I didn't create confusion for you. It is important to keep in mind that this problem can be solved by complex analysis approaches , if you are going to take this course in the future .
 
oooppp2 said:

Looks like you know how to do it.
Good. ;)

However, in your last 2 lines you write:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2B + \frac 4 3 \\
B &=& -\frac 4 3
\end{array}
But if I substitute that, I get:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2 \cdot (- \frac 4 3) + \frac 4 3 \\
1 &=& -\frac 3 3
\end{array}
But... that does not seem right!For the next steps, you might work toward the following integrals:
\begin{array}{lcl}
\int \frac {du}{1+u^2} &=& \arctan u + C \\
\int \frac {u du}{1+u^2} &=& \frac 1 2 \ln(1+u^2) + C
\end{array}
 
I like Serena said:
Looks like you know how to do it.
Good. ;)

However, in your last 2 lines you write:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2B + \frac 4 3 \\
B &=& -\frac 4 3
\end{array}
But if I substitute that, I get:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2 \cdot (- \frac 4 3) + \frac 4 3 \\
1 &=& -\frac 3 3
\end{array}
But... that does not seem right!For the next steps, you might work toward the following integrals:
\begin{array}{lcl}
\int \frac {du}{1+u^2} &=& \arctan u + C \\
\int \frac {u du}{1+u^2} &=& \frac 1 2 \ln(1+u^2) + C
\end{array}

Here is my attempt. I'm still a bit stuck...

https://www.dropbox.com/s/9gub6zq02b5235b/Screenshot 2013-10-26 21.13.45.png
 
  • #10
oooppp2 said:

This link looks to me like a screen shot taken while you were composing a post.

Let's look at the partial fraction decomposition:

$$\frac{1}{x^3+1}=\frac{1}{(x+1)\left(x^2-x+1 \right)}=\frac{A}{x+1}+\frac{Bx+C}{x^2-x+1}$$

Multiplying through by $$(x+1)\left(x^2-x+1 \right)$$ we obtain:

$$1=A\left(x^2-x+1 \right)+(Bx+C)(x+1)$$

$$1=Ax^2-Ax+A+Bx^2+Bx+Cx+C$$

$$0x^2+0x+1=(A+B)x^2+(-A+B+C)x+(A+C)$$

Comparison of coefficients results in the linear system:

$$A+B=0$$

$$-A+B+C=0$$

$$A+C=1$$

What do you find when you solve this system?
 
  • #12
  • #13
I like Serena said:
For the next steps, you might work toward the following integrals:
\begin{array}{lcl}
\int \frac {du}{1+u^2} &=& \arctan u + C \\
\int \frac {u du}{1+u^2} &=& \frac 1 2 \ln(1+u^2) + C
\end{array}

But for the arctan(u) and ln(1+u^2) should I take the limit as n goes to infty? How is that done? Thanks.
 
  • #15
oooppp2 said:
Would be very grateful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$
As an aside, in light of Zaid's answer to this Q, you can use his reside / Beta Integral derivation to consider certain series evaluations...

Let

$$I_n=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}$$Specifically, it might be interesting to expand the $$(1+x^n)$$ term in the denominator via

$$(1+x^n)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}(-1)^kx^{kn}$$

However, this series has radius of convergence $$r=1$$, so first we'd need to split the integral into:

$$I_n=\int_0^1 \frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}+\int_1^{\infty}\frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}$$Now apply the substitution $$x=1/y$$, $$dx=-dy/y^2$$ on the second integral to get:$$I_n=\int_0^1\frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}-\int_1^0\frac{dy}{y^2(1+(1/y)^n)}=$$$$\int_0^1 \Bigg\{ \frac{1}{1+x^n}+\frac{x^{n-2}}{(1+x^n)} \Bigg\} \,dx= \int_0^1\frac{1}{1+x^n}(1+x^{n-2})\,dx=$$$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (-1)^k\int_0^1x^{kn}(1+x^{n-2})\,dx$$
From a historical point of view, this type of integral is particularly interesting with regards to the infamous calculus battle between Leibniz and Newton... Leibniz used the case n=2 to prove what is now famously, and indeed mistakenly (!), called Leibniz's Series:

$$\int_0^1\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{7} + \cdots = \frac{\pi}{4}
$$

[This series was known to Madhava in the Fourteenth Centurty :eek: )To which Newton replied by evaluating the case for n=4 in two different ways, to show that:

$$\int_0^1\frac{1+x^2}{1+x^4}\,dx=1+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{11}- \cdots = \frac{\pi}{2 \sqrt{2}}$$

Ermmm... Seem to have wandered a tad off-topic here. Whoops! (Heidy)Back on-topic: If you consider Zaid's answer above, and the series form given here, then you have two different evaluations of each integral - much like Sir Isaac Newton - for the parameter n. Standing on the shoulders of giants indeed... (Rock)
 

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