Can you evaluate this integral using series and historical methods?

  • Context: MHB 
  • Thread starter Thread starter vilhelm
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integrate
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral $\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$ can be evaluated using contour integration or the Beta function. The solution is given by the formula $\frac{2\pi}{3\sqrt{3}}$, derived from the relationship with the Gamma function: $\frac{1}{3} \Gamma\left(\frac{1}{3}\right) \Gamma\left(1 - \frac{1}{3}\right)$. The discussion highlights the importance of partial fraction decomposition and historical context, referencing the calculus battle between Leibniz and Newton regarding similar integrals.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of contour integration techniques
  • Familiarity with the Beta and Gamma functions
  • Knowledge of partial fraction decomposition
  • Basic calculus concepts, including limits and integration
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties and applications of the Beta function
  • Learn about contour integration methods in complex analysis
  • Explore the historical context of calculus, focusing on Leibniz and Newton
  • Practice solving integrals using partial fraction decomposition
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of calculus, and anyone interested in advanced integration techniques and the historical development of calculus.

vilhelm
Messages
37
Reaction score
0
Would be very grateful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$
 
Physics news on Phys.org
oooppp2 said:
Would be very greatful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$

$x^3+1$ has the root $x=-1$.
Therefore we can factorize it:
$$x^3 + 1 = (x+1)(x^2-x+1)$$
Next step is partial fractions...
 
oooppp2 said:
Would be very greatful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$

It can be solved by contour integration or by Beta function .

$$ \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3} =\frac{1}{3} \int_0^\infty \frac{x^{\frac{1}{3}-1}}{1+x } dx =\frac{1}{3} \Gamma \left( \frac{1}{3}\right) \Gamma \left(1- \frac{1}{3}\right) = \frac{\pi }{3 \sin \left (\frac{\pi }{3} \right) } = \frac{2\pi }{3 \sqrt{3}}$$
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
It can be solved by contour integration or by Beta function .

$$ \int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3} =\frac{1}{3} \int_0^\infty \frac{x^{\frac{1}{3}-1}}{1+x } dx =\frac{1}{3} \Gamma \left( \frac{1}{3}\right) \Gamma \left(1- \frac{1}{3}\right) = \frac{\pi }{3 \sin \left (\frac{\pi }{3} \right) } = \frac{2\pi }{3 \sqrt{3}}$$

First calculus course, so I have not learned that.

- - - Updated - - -

I like Serena said:
$x^3+1$ has the root $x=-1$.
Therefore we can factorize it:
$$x^3 + 1 = (x+1)(x^2-x+1)$$
Next step is partial fractions...

Thanks, I'll try it and update with my progress.
 
oooppp2 said:
First calculus course, so I have not learned that.

I hope I didn't create confusion for you. It is important to keep in mind that this problem can be solved by complex analysis approaches , if you are going to take this course in the future .
 
oooppp2 said:

Looks like you know how to do it.
Good. ;)

However, in your last 2 lines you write:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2B + \frac 4 3 \\
B &=& -\frac 4 3
\end{array}
But if I substitute that, I get:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2 \cdot (- \frac 4 3) + \frac 4 3 \\
1 &=& -\frac 3 3
\end{array}
But... that does not seem right!For the next steps, you might work toward the following integrals:
\begin{array}{lcl}
\int \frac {du}{1+u^2} &=& \arctan u + C \\
\int \frac {u du}{1+u^2} &=& \frac 1 2 \ln(1+u^2) + C
\end{array}
 
I like Serena said:
Looks like you know how to do it.
Good. ;)

However, in your last 2 lines you write:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2B + \frac 4 3 \\
B &=& -\frac 4 3
\end{array}
But if I substitute that, I get:
\begin{array}{lcl}
1 &=& \frac 1 3 + 2 \cdot (- \frac 4 3) + \frac 4 3 \\
1 &=& -\frac 3 3
\end{array}
But... that does not seem right!For the next steps, you might work toward the following integrals:
\begin{array}{lcl}
\int \frac {du}{1+u^2} &=& \arctan u + C \\
\int \frac {u du}{1+u^2} &=& \frac 1 2 \ln(1+u^2) + C
\end{array}

Here is my attempt. I'm still a bit stuck...

https://www.dropbox.com/s/9gub6zq02b5235b/Screenshot 2013-10-26 21.13.45.png
 
  • #10
oooppp2 said:

This link looks to me like a screen shot taken while you were composing a post.

Let's look at the partial fraction decomposition:

$$\frac{1}{x^3+1}=\frac{1}{(x+1)\left(x^2-x+1 \right)}=\frac{A}{x+1}+\frac{Bx+C}{x^2-x+1}$$

Multiplying through by $$(x+1)\left(x^2-x+1 \right)$$ we obtain:

$$1=A\left(x^2-x+1 \right)+(Bx+C)(x+1)$$

$$1=Ax^2-Ax+A+Bx^2+Bx+Cx+C$$

$$0x^2+0x+1=(A+B)x^2+(-A+B+C)x+(A+C)$$

Comparison of coefficients results in the linear system:

$$A+B=0$$

$$-A+B+C=0$$

$$A+C=1$$

What do you find when you solve this system?
 
  • #12
  • #13
I like Serena said:
For the next steps, you might work toward the following integrals:
\begin{array}{lcl}
\int \frac {du}{1+u^2} &=& \arctan u + C \\
\int \frac {u du}{1+u^2} &=& \frac 1 2 \ln(1+u^2) + C
\end{array}

But for the arctan(u) and ln(1+u^2) should I take the limit as n goes to infty? How is that done? Thanks.
 
  • #15
oooppp2 said:
Would be very grateful if someone helped me on this.

$\displaystyle\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{1+x^3}$
As an aside, in light of Zaid's answer to this Q, you can use his reside / Beta Integral derivation to consider certain series evaluations...

Let

$$I_n=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}$$Specifically, it might be interesting to expand the $$(1+x^n)$$ term in the denominator via

$$(1+x^n)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}(-1)^kx^{kn}$$

However, this series has radius of convergence $$r=1$$, so first we'd need to split the integral into:

$$I_n=\int_0^1 \frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}+\int_1^{\infty}\frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}$$Now apply the substitution $$x=1/y$$, $$dx=-dy/y^2$$ on the second integral to get:$$I_n=\int_0^1\frac{dx}{(1+x^n)}-\int_1^0\frac{dy}{y^2(1+(1/y)^n)}=$$$$\int_0^1 \Bigg\{ \frac{1}{1+x^n}+\frac{x^{n-2}}{(1+x^n)} \Bigg\} \,dx= \int_0^1\frac{1}{1+x^n}(1+x^{n-2})\,dx=$$$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (-1)^k\int_0^1x^{kn}(1+x^{n-2})\,dx$$
From a historical point of view, this type of integral is particularly interesting with regards to the infamous calculus battle between Leibniz and Newton... Leibniz used the case n=2 to prove what is now famously, and indeed mistakenly (!), called Leibniz's Series:

$$\int_0^1\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=1-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{7} + \cdots = \frac{\pi}{4}
$$

[This series was known to Madhava in the Fourteenth Centurty :eek: )To which Newton replied by evaluating the case for n=4 in two different ways, to show that:

$$\int_0^1\frac{1+x^2}{1+x^4}\,dx=1+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{7}+\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{11}- \cdots = \frac{\pi}{2 \sqrt{2}}$$

Ermmm... Seem to have wandered a tad off-topic here. Whoops! (Heidy)Back on-topic: If you consider Zaid's answer above, and the series form given here, then you have two different evaluations of each integral - much like Sir Isaac Newton - for the parameter n. Standing on the shoulders of giants indeed... (Rock)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
4K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K