MHB Can You Prove This Advanced Mathematical Inequality?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Euge
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
The discussion centers on proving an advanced mathematical inequality involving a continuous function K defined on the unit square. The inequality states that under certain supremum conditions on K, the integral of the squared integral of K multiplied by a continuous function f must be less than or equal to 1, given that f is also constrained by an integral condition. Despite the complexity of the problem, no participants provided solutions, indicating a potential challenge in addressing the inequality. The original poster shares their own solution, inviting further engagement. The problem highlights the interplay between functional analysis and integral inequalities in mathematical research.
Euge
Gold Member
MHB
POTW Director
Messages
2,072
Reaction score
245
Here is this week's POTW:

-----
Let $K : [0,1]\times [0,1] \to \Bbb R$ be a continuous function such that $\sup\limits_{x\in [0,1]} \int_0^1 |K(x,y)|\, dy \le 1$ and $\sup\limits_{y\in [0,1]} \int_0^1|K(x,y)|\, dx \le 1$. Prove that
$$\int_0^1 \left(\int_0^1 K(x,y)f(y)\, dy\right)^2\, dx \le 1$$ for all continuous functions $f : [0,1]\to \Bbb R$ such that $\int_0^1 f(y)^2\, dy \le 1$.-----

Remember to read the https://mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to https://mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No one answered this week's problem. You can read my solution below.
Let $T : C[0,1] \to \Bbb R$ be defined by the equation

$$T(f)(x) = \int_0^1 K(x,y)f(y)\, dy$$

Then $T$ is a linear functional on $C[0,1]$. Let $f\in C[0,1]$ with $\int_0^1 f(y)^2\, dy \le 1$. We have

$$\int_0^1 \left(\int_0^1 K(x,y)f(y)\, dy\right)^2\, dx = \|Tf\|_2^2 = \sup_{\|g\|_2 = 1} \langle Tf,g\rangle^2$$

For fixed $g \in C[0,1]$ with $\|g\|_2 = 1$,

$$\langle Tf,g\rangle = \int_0^1 Tf(x)g(x)\, dx = \int_0^1 \int_0^1 K(x,y)f(y)g(x)\, dx\, dy$$ so that

$$\lvert \langle Tf,g\rangle\rvert \le \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \lvert K(x,y)\rvert \frac{f(y)^2 + g(x)^2}{2}\, dx\, dy$$
$$ = \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 f(y)^2 \left(\int_0^1 \lvert K(x,y)\rvert\, dx\right)\, dy + \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 g(x)^2 \left(\int_0^1 \lvert K(x,y)\rvert\, dy\right)\, dx $$
$$\le \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 f(y)^2\, dy + \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 g(x)^2\, dx \le 1 $$

Hence $$\sup_{\|g\|_2 = 1} \langle Tf,g\rangle^2 \le 1$$ as desired.