MHB Can You Prove this Specific Inequality Involving Positive Integers?

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The discussion focuses on proving the inequality involving positive integers \( l, k, m, n \) under the conditions \( l+m \le 1982 \) and \( \frac{l}{k} + \frac{m}{n} < 1 \). The goal is to demonstrate that \( 1 - \frac{l}{k} - \frac{m}{n} > \frac{1}{1983^3} \). Participants suggest exploring alternative methods to approach the problem, indicating a desire for varied solutions. The hint encourages considering different problem variants to enhance understanding. The conversation emphasizes the complexity of the inequality and the need for rigorous proof techniques.
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Positive integers $l,\,k,\,m,\,n$ satisfying $l+m \le 1982$ and $\dfrac{l}{k}+\dfrac{m}{n}<1$. Prove that $1-\dfrac{l}{k}-\dfrac{m}{n}>\dfrac{1}{1983^3}$.
 
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Hint:

Let $1-\dfrac{l}{k}-\dfrac{m}{n}=\dfrac{a}{kn}$ for some positive integer $a$. And see what happens if we let $a>n$ and $a\le n$.

The skill of using the concept of contradicting of minimality with respect to certain variable helps too.
 
Solution of other:

Let us consider the general case with 1982 replaced by $P$. We have $l
\dfrac{1}{P}$. So there is no need in making $n$ too big.

Certainly we must have $n<2Pm<2P^2$. Similarly for $k$. So there are only finitely many candidates for $l,\,m,\,n,\,k$. Hence there is a set of values which minimizes $1-\dfrac{l}{k}-\dfrac{m}{n}$. Let us adopt these values.

Clearly $1-\dfrac{l}{k}-\dfrac{m}{n}=\dfrac{a}{kn}$ for some positive integer $a$. We may assume that $k>n$. The fact that $l,\,m,\,n,\,k$ is an optimal set means that $a$ cannot be too large. Multiplying across, $a=kn-ln-km$. So if $a>n$, we could increase $l$ by 1. That would reduce $1-\dfrac{l}{k}-\dfrac{m}{n}$ to $\dfrac{a-n}{kn}$, contradicting minimality. So, $a\le n$.

Now, $kn=a+ln+km\le a+lk+km=a+k(l+m)\le a+kP$. Hence, $n\le P+\dfrac{a}{k}\le P+1$.

But $\dfrac{a}{kn}+\dfrac{l}{k}=1-\dfrac{m}{n}\ge \dfrac{1}{n}\ge \dfrac{1}{P+1}$.

We have $\dfrac{a}{kn}+\dfrac{l}{k}=\dfrac{1}{k(l+1)}\le \dfrac{1}{k(l+1)}\le \dfrac{1}{kP}$. So, $\dfrac{1}{k}\ge \dfrac{1}{P(P+1)}>\dfrac{1}{(P+1)^2}$.

Hence $1-\dfrac{l}{k}-\dfrac{m}{n}=\dfrac{a}{kn}>\dfrac{a}{(P+1)^3}\ge \dfrac{1}{(P+1)^3}=\dfrac{1}{1983^3}$.
 
I am thinking it would be nice to show another variant of the same problem that uses other method to tackle it...here goes the problem:

Let $l,\,k,\,m,\,n\in\Bbb{Z_+}$ and $a=1-\dfrac{l}{k}-\dfrac{m}{n}$. If $a>0$ and $l+m\le 1982$, then prove that $a>\dfrac{1}{1983^3}$.

We have 3 cases to analyze:

Case I: If $k,\,n\ge 1983$, then $a\ge 1-\dfrac{l+m}{1983}\ge 1-\dfrac{1982}{1983}>\dfrac{1}{1983^3}$.

Case II: if $k,\,n\le 1983$, then $a=\dfrac{kn-ln-km}{kn}>0$ so that $kn-ln-km \ge 1$. Thus, $a\ge \dfrac{1}{kn}>\dfrac{1}{1983^3}$.

Case III:

Suppose now that $k<1983<n$, if $n>1983^2$ and $a<\dfrac{1}{1983^3}$, then $\dfrac{m}{n}<\dfrac{1982}{1983}$, thus, $1-\dfrac{l}{k}<\dfrac{1}{1983}$. This implies that $k>1983(k-l)>1983$ because $l\le k+1$, which is absurd. If $n\le 1983^2$, then as in the case II above, we have $a\ge \dfrac{1}{kn}>\dfrac{1}{1983^3}$.
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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