MHB Can You Solve This Set Theory and Binary Number Problem?

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The discussion focuses on proving that the function f, which maps subsets of a set S with n elements to binary sequences of n digits, is a one-to-one correspondence. Participants emphasize that each subset of S uniquely determines a binary number based on the presence of its elements, while each binary number corresponds to a unique subset of S. The proof requires demonstrating that every element in the power set P(S) has a unique binary representation and vice versa. Clarifications on the relationship between subsets and binary sequences are provided to guide the proof. The conclusion affirms that the function f is indeed a one-to-one correspondence.
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Preparing for an upcoming midterm and this is one of the practice questions from an old test.

The Question:
Let X be a set with n elements, say S = {s1, s2,..., sn}
Let B be the set of binary numbers with n digits. That is, sequences of n terms, each
of which is 0 or 1.

Define f : P(S) --> B (power set of S) as follows: the image of X ∈ P(S) is the
binary sequence b1b2...bn where bi is the truth value of the statement bi ∈ X, for
i = 1, 2, ..., n.

Prove that f is a 1-1 correspondence.

My Work so far:

If A1 = A2 = An, there are n-try relation and A is a subset of An = A x A x ... x A = {(a1,, a2, ..., an) iai + A for each i = 1, ...,n}

Prove: that there are n-tuples.

I am not sure where to go from here, or if my work is heading in the right direction (Speechless)
Any help would be much appreciated!
 
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bootleg said:
Preparing for an upcoming midterm and this is one of the practice questions from an old test.

The Question:
Let X be a set with n elements, say S = {s1, s2,..., sn}
Let B be the set of binary numbers with n digits. That is, sequences of n terms, each
of which is 0 or 1.

Define f : P(S) --> B (power set of S) as follows: the image of X ∈ P(S) is the
binary sequence b1b2...bn where bi is the truth value of the statement bi ∈ X, for
i = 1, 2, ..., n.

Prove that f is a 1-1 correspondence.

My Work so far:

If A1 = A2 = An, there are n-try relation and A is a subset of An = A x A x ... x A = {(a1,, a2, ..., an) iai + A for each i = 1, ...,n}

Prove: that there are n-tuples.

I am not sure where to go from here, or if my work is heading in the right direction
Any help would be much appreciated!

Welcome to MHB, bootleg! :)

To prove a 1-1 relation, you need to prove that for every element in P(S) there is a unique associated element in B, and also that for every element in B there is a unique associated element in P(S).

If you take any subset of S, it determines a number in B uniquely, as per the definition of your f.
Each number in B consists of n values of either 0 or 1. If we construct a set with exactly those $s_i$ that have a corresponding 1 in the number from B, we get a unique set that is an element of P(S).
Therefore the relation is 1-1.
 
The standard _A " operator" maps a Null Hypothesis Ho into a decision set { Do not reject:=1 and reject :=0}. In this sense ( HA)_A , makes no sense. Since H0, HA aren't exhaustive, can we find an alternative operator, _A' , so that ( H_A)_A' makes sense? Isn't Pearson Neyman related to this? Hope I'm making sense. Edit: I was motivated by a superficial similarity of the idea with double transposition of matrices M, with ## (M^{T})^{T}=M##, and just wanted to see if it made sense to talk...

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