MHB Can You Solve This Set Theory and Binary Number Problem?

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The discussion focuses on proving that the function f, which maps subsets of a set S with n elements to binary sequences of n digits, is a one-to-one correspondence. Participants emphasize that each subset of S uniquely determines a binary number based on the presence of its elements, while each binary number corresponds to a unique subset of S. The proof requires demonstrating that every element in the power set P(S) has a unique binary representation and vice versa. Clarifications on the relationship between subsets and binary sequences are provided to guide the proof. The conclusion affirms that the function f is indeed a one-to-one correspondence.
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Preparing for an upcoming midterm and this is one of the practice questions from an old test.

The Question:
Let X be a set with n elements, say S = {s1, s2,..., sn}
Let B be the set of binary numbers with n digits. That is, sequences of n terms, each
of which is 0 or 1.

Define f : P(S) --> B (power set of S) as follows: the image of X ∈ P(S) is the
binary sequence b1b2...bn where bi is the truth value of the statement bi ∈ X, for
i = 1, 2, ..., n.

Prove that f is a 1-1 correspondence.

My Work so far:

If A1 = A2 = An, there are n-try relation and A is a subset of An = A x A x ... x A = {(a1,, a2, ..., an) iai + A for each i = 1, ...,n}

Prove: that there are n-tuples.

I am not sure where to go from here, or if my work is heading in the right direction (Speechless)
Any help would be much appreciated!
 
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bootleg said:
Preparing for an upcoming midterm and this is one of the practice questions from an old test.

The Question:
Let X be a set with n elements, say S = {s1, s2,..., sn}
Let B be the set of binary numbers with n digits. That is, sequences of n terms, each
of which is 0 or 1.

Define f : P(S) --> B (power set of S) as follows: the image of X ∈ P(S) is the
binary sequence b1b2...bn where bi is the truth value of the statement bi ∈ X, for
i = 1, 2, ..., n.

Prove that f is a 1-1 correspondence.

My Work so far:

If A1 = A2 = An, there are n-try relation and A is a subset of An = A x A x ... x A = {(a1,, a2, ..., an) iai + A for each i = 1, ...,n}

Prove: that there are n-tuples.

I am not sure where to go from here, or if my work is heading in the right direction
Any help would be much appreciated!

Welcome to MHB, bootleg! :)

To prove a 1-1 relation, you need to prove that for every element in P(S) there is a unique associated element in B, and also that for every element in B there is a unique associated element in P(S).

If you take any subset of S, it determines a number in B uniquely, as per the definition of your f.
Each number in B consists of n values of either 0 or 1. If we construct a set with exactly those $s_i$ that have a corresponding 1 in the number from B, we get a unique set that is an element of P(S).
Therefore the relation is 1-1.
 
There is a nice little variation of the problem. The host says, after you have chosen the door, that you can change your guess, but to sweeten the deal, he says you can choose the two other doors, if you wish. This proposition is a no brainer, however before you are quick enough to accept it, the host opens one of the two doors and it is empty. In this version you really want to change your pick, but at the same time ask yourself is the host impartial and does that change anything. The host...

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