Can You Solve This Week's Complex Analysis Problem?

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The problem presented involves using complex analysis to demonstrate that the integral of sin x divided by x from 0 to infinity equals π/2. Despite the challenge, no participants provided a solution. The original poster then shares their own solution to the problem. The discussion highlights the application of complex analysis techniques in evaluating integrals. Overall, the thread emphasizes the importance of engaging with complex analysis problems for deeper mathematical understanding.
Chris L T521
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Here's this week's problem.

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Problem: Use complex analysis to show that $\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\sin x}{x}=\frac{\pi}{2}$.

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No one answered this week's question. Here's my solution.

Pf: Let $f(z)=\dfrac{e^{iz}}{z}$. We see that it's meromorphic on $\mathbb{C}$ with a simple pole at $z=0$. We evaluate $\displaystyle\int_{\Gamma} f(z)\,dz$ over the indented semi-circle contour $\Gamma=\gamma_R\cup [-R,-\varepsilon]\cup\gamma_{\varepsilon}\cup [\varepsilon, R]$ traversed counterclockwise where $\gamma_{\varepsilon}$ is a half-circle of radius $\varepsilon$ and $\gamma_R$ is a half-circle of radius $R$. Since $\Gamma$ is a closed contour, we have by Cauchy's theorem that\[\int_{\Gamma} f(z)\,dz=0.\]
Now, on $\gamma_{\varepsilon}$, $f(z) \sim \dfrac{e^0}{z}=\dfrac{1}{z}$; thus, $\displaystyle\int_{\gamma_{\varepsilon}}f(z)\,dz \sim-\pi i$ (note that this result is negative since $\gamma_{\varepsilon}$ is actually traversed clockwise). We get equality as $\varepsilon\to 0$.
On $\gamma_R$, let $z=Re^{i\theta}$ for $0\leq \theta\leq \pi$. On $\gamma_R$, we have that
\[|f(z)|= |f(Re^{i\theta})| = \left|\frac{\exp( iRe^{i\theta})}{R e^{i\theta}}\right| = \frac{|\exp(iR(\cos\theta+i\sin\theta))|}{R} = \frac{e^{-R\sin\theta}}{R}\]
and
\[|dz|=|iRe^{i\theta}\,d\theta|=R\,d\theta.\]
Therefore,
\[\left|\int_{\gamma_R}f(z)\,dz\right| \leq\int_0^{\pi} e^{-R\sin\theta}\,d\theta.\]
Now, for any $R$, $\exp(-R\sin\theta)$ is bounded above by $1$. But as $R\to\infty$, $\exp(-R\sin\theta)\to 0$ and hence $\displaystyle\int_{\gamma_R}f(z)\,dz\rightarrow 0$
The remaining two pieces of the integral are
\[\begin{aligned} \int_{-R}^{\varepsilon}\frac{e^{ix}}{x}\,dx+ \int_{\varepsilon}^R \frac{e^{ix}}{x}\,dx &= \int_R^{\varepsilon} \frac{e^{-ix}}{-x}\,d(-x)+\int_{\varepsilon}^R\frac{e^{ix}}{x}\,dx\\ &= \int_{\varepsilon}^R \frac{e^{ix}-e^{-ix}}{x}\,dx\\ &= 2i\int_{\varepsilon}^R\frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx.\end{aligned}\]
Putting all the pieces together, we see that as $\varepsilon\to 0$ and $R\to\infty$, we have
\[\int_{\Gamma}f(z)\,dz=0\implies 2i\int_0^{\infty}\frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx - \pi i = 0\implies \int_0^{\infty}\frac{\sin x}{x}\,dx=\frac{\pi}{2}.\]
The justification is now complete. $\hspace{4in}\blacksquare$
 

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