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Cayley-Hamilton theorem for Operator

  1. Jul 20, 2010 #1
    let be [tex] f(x)=det(xI-T) [/tex] for some operator 'T'

    then does Cayley-Hamilton theorem apply so [tex] f(T)=0 [/tex] in the sense of operator
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 27, 2010 #2
    Good question , Zetafunction.
    I think we need restrictions on T to ensure convergence in the corresponding Banach/Hilbert space( or else f(T) may not make sense.)
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