MHB Comparing $gH$ and $Hg$ for Infinite & Finite Groups

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In the discussion about comparing the left and right cosets $gH$ and $Hg$ for infinite and finite groups, the key point is the condition that for every element $h \in H$, there exists an element $h' \in H$ such that $gh = h'g$. This condition leads to the conclusion that $gH \subseteq Hg$ for finite groups, implying $gH = Hg$ due to the bijection between the two sets. However, for infinite groups, this does not necessarily hold, as demonstrated by an example involving group presentations where conjugation does not map onto the subgroup. The conversation highlights the complexity of group properties and the necessity of specific conditions for equality of cosets. Ultimately, the relationship between $gH$ and $Hg$ varies significantly depending on the finiteness of the groups involved.
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Suppose $G$ is an infinite group and $H$ is an infinite subgroup of $G$.

Let $g\in G$.

Suppose $\forall h\in H\ \exists h'\in H$ such that $gh=h'g$.

Can we conclude that $gH=Hg$?

What if $G$ and $H$ are of finite orders?
 
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Alexmahone said:
Suppose $G$ is an infinite group and $H$ is an infinite subgroup of $G$.

Let $g\in G$.

Suppose $\forall h\in H\ \exists h'\in H$ such that $gh=h'g$.

Can we conclude that $gH=Hg$?

What if $G$ and $H$ are of finite orders?
I don't have an answer, just an observation. It is possible that given g and h that the h' might generate a subset of H, not all of H. (ie. [math]\exists f: H \to H'[/math] is not an bijection.) In which case [math]gH = H'g \subseteq Hg[/math] in general. I don't know if that helps or not.

-Dan
 
Alexmahone said:
Suppose $G$ is an infinite group and $H$ is an infinite subgroup of $G$.

Let $g\in G$.

Suppose $\forall h\in H\ \exists h'\in H$ such that $gh=h'g$.

Can we conclude that $gH=Hg$?

What if $G$ and $H$ are of finite orders?

Hi Alexmahone,

I believe your statement is correct, but only for finite groups. Suppose $G$ is finite. The given condition implies $gH \subset Hg$. Since there is a bijection $gH \leftrightarrow Hg$, then $gH$ and $Hg$ have the same number of elements. Hence, $gH = Hg$.
 
Actually, the statement also holds when $G$ is commutative, infinite or not. The condition would not be needed in such a case.
 
Your problem rephrased slightly:
If $G$ is a group, $H$ a subgroup of $G$ and $g\in G$ with $gHg^{-1}\subseteq H$, does $gHg^{-1}=H$?

Euge has answered in the affirmative for some cases; also this follows if $g$ has finite order, easy proof.

I think an example is needed that shows this is not always true. To follow the example, you need to know a little about group presentations.

Let $G=<a\,,b\,:\, b^{-1}ab=a^2>,\,H=<a>\text{ and } g=b^{-1}$
Since conjugation is a homomorphism, $gHg^{-1}\subseteq H$. If this conjugation were an onto map, there would exist an integer $k$ with $ga^kg^{-1}=a$. But $ga^kg^{-1}=a^{2k}$ . Since $a$ has infinite order (loosely speaking there is no relation that allows $a$ to have finite order), we would get that $2k=1$, impossible. So $gHg^{-1}\neq H$.
 

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