Complex Analysis - Fibonacci Identity

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The discussion revolves around deriving a formula for the nth term of the Fibonacci sequence using complex analysis, specifically the residue theorem and generating functions. Participants explore the connection between the generating function and Binet's formula, while addressing the complexities of extracting coefficients from power series. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the roots of the characteristic polynomial and the implications of the radius of convergence on the function's behavior. Additionally, alternative approaches, such as matrix diagonalization, are suggested for obtaining a closed form for the Fibonacci terms. Overall, the thread emphasizes the mathematical intricacies involved in deriving Fibonacci identities through complex analysis techniques.
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Hey guys~
I was looking for a way to derive a formula for fn (the nth term in the fibonacci sequence). While looking for this, I came across a potential solution using the residue theorem.
Using the generating function Ʃk≥0 fnzn, find the identity for fn.
The problem looks like the right thumbnail.
Also, it can be found here on page 106: http://www.math.binghamton.edu/sabalka/teaching/09Spring375/Chapter10.pdf

I personally do not understand how using the suggested hint will bring you to a formula for fn.
I know that one must Recall Cauchy's integral formula to relate the integral to the value of fn.

Also, will the resulting identity simply be Binet's formula? Thanks all,
Physics-Pure
 

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If anyone knows where to find the solution set, that would also be appreciated. It isn't homework related, simply for fun.
 
Yes that is Binet's formula.

A=(z^{n+1}(1-z-z^2))^{-1} \\<br /> f_n=^\mathrm{Res}_{z=0}A=\left(^\mathrm{Res}_{z=-\phi}A+^\mathrm{Res}_{z=0}A+^\mathrm{Res}_{z=1-\phi}A \right)-^\mathrm{Res}_{z=-\phi}A-^\mathrm{Res}_{z=1-\phi}A=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \! A \mathrm \,{dz}-^\mathrm{Res}_{z=-\phi}A-^\mathrm{Res}_{z=1-\phi}A=-^\mathrm{Res}_{z=-\phi}A-^\mathrm{Res}_{z=1-\phi}A<br />

The gain here is the residue at zero is complicated, while the two others lead easily to Binet's formula.
 
First off, where does the z^n+1 come from?
But I believe I understand the rest now.
 
z^(n-1) is part of the usual formula to extract coefficients from a power series.

1=^\mathrm{Res}_{z=0}z^{-1}\\<br /> a_n=^\mathrm{Res}_{z=0} \frac{1}{z^{n+1}}\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty a_n z^n
 
Ahh, I understand. Now why did you put -phi and 1-phi instead of phi and conjuagte phi?
 
Why would dividing by z^(n+1) extract the a_nth term?
 
-phi and 1-phi are the roots of 1-z-z^2
phi and conjuagte phi are the roots of 1-z+z^2
It works out the same in the end.
 
  • #10
Dividing by z^(n+1) makes the z^n term into z^-1, the residue is the coefficient of z^-1.
 
  • #11
Alright. Can you also tell me why it's even useful to show that it has a positive radius of convergence? And how to do so?
 
  • #12
Why is it even relevant to the question at hand?
 
  • #13
The positive radius of convergence can be found many ways including by the ratio test if you can find the limiting ratio. A positive radius of convergence tells us F is nonsingular at z=0 which we use in extracting the coefficients. If F had a pole we would need to ajust the coefficients, if F had an essential singularity it might be much harder.
 
  • #14
"phi and conjuagte phi are the roots of 1-z+z^2
It works out the same in the end."
Why does it work out the same in the end?
 
  • #15
Another approach is that of describing the regression as a matrix, and then diagonalizing the matrix ( not too hard to show it is diagonalizable). That gives you a closed form for the n-th term.
 
  • #16
<br /> f_n=^\mathrm{Res}_{z=0}(z^{n+1}(1-z-z^2))^{-1}=^\mathrm{Res}_{z=0}((-z)^{n+1}(-1-z+z^2))^{-1}

so it does not make much difference. It is just a change of variable between z and -z.
 
  • #17
Would you mind showing the work required for (1)? Using the ratio test
 
  • #18
r^{-1}=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left|\frac{f_{n+1}}{f_n}\right|=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left|\frac{f_n+f_{n-1}}{f_n}\right|=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left|1+\frac{f_{n-1}}{f_n}\right|= 1+\phi^{-1}=\phi \\ r=\phi^{-1}

provided we know
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{f_{n+1}}{f_n}=\phi$$
 

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