Conceptual Problem with Convolution Theorem

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The discussion revolves around a convolution problem involving the Fourier Transform of a product of a positive function p(x) and the step function U(x). The user successfully applies the convolution theorem to the integral with the negative exponential but struggles with the integral featuring the positive exponential. They attempt to derive the convolution theorem for both cases but encounter difficulties in relating the two integrals. The user seeks clarification on how to express the integral with the positive exponential in terms of convolutions, considering the real and imaginary components separately. The conversation emphasizes the importance of returning to fundamental definitions to resolve the conceptual issues.
thrillhouse86
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Hi - I'm trying to work out the following convolution problem:

I have the following integral:
<br /> \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}p(x)U(x)e^{-i \omega x}dx<br />

Where p(x) is any real function which is always positive and U(x) is the step function

Obviously this can easily be solved using the convolution theorem because I have
<br /> \mathcal{F}[p(x)U(x)] = P(\omega)*U(\omega)<br />

The problem I having is with the very similar integral but the exponential is now positive:
<br /> \int^{\infty}_{-infty}p(x)U(x)e^{+i \omega x}dx<br />

I don't know how to deal with this integral - even though I suspect I can use the convolution theorem on it.

I've tried to derive the convolution theorem for both exponentials but I get stuck at the stage:

<br /> \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(\omega&#039;)U(\omega-\omega&#039;)d\omega&#039;e^{-i\omega x}d\omega = p(x)u(x)<br />

And:

<br /> \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(\omega&#039;)U(\omega-\omega&#039;)d\omega&#039;e^{+i\omega x}d\omega = p(x)u(x)<br />

My problem is this:
If I define the \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} f(x) e^{-i\omega x} integral as the Fourier Transform - then I can write the second equation as:
<br /> \mathcal{F}^{-1}[P(\omega)*U(\omega)] =p(x)u(x)<br />
And thus applying the inverse Fourier operator to both sides I get:
<br /> [P(\omega)*U(\omega)] =\mathcal{F}[p(x)u(x)]<br />

But If I set up this convention for my Fourier Transform how do I deal with the first equation:
<br /> \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(\omega&#039;)U(\omega-\omega&#039;)d\omega&#039;e^{-i\omega x}d\omega = p(x)u(x)<br />

This isn't a Fourier Transform operation anymore - its slightly different. Is there anything I can do from here to show what:
<br /> \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} p(x)u(x)e^{i\omega x} dx<br />

is in terms of convolutions ?
 
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Think about real and imaginary parts of the integral separately.

p(x) and U(x) are real functions.

e^{i\omega x} = \cos \omega x + i \sin \omega x

e^{-i\omega x} = \cos \omega x - i \sin \omega x

That's all you need to answer the question.
 
Last edited:
Thanks AlpehZero - I guess it always helps to go back to the fundamental definitions ...
 

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