Edgardo
- 706
- 17
I have a question about congruences involving fractions.
For integers a and b the following is defined:
a and b are congruent modulo m (m is a natural number) if there exists
an integer k such that k*m = a-b
a \equiv b (\mbox{mod } m) \Longleftrightarrow \exists k \in \mathbb{Z} : km = a-b
For example:
13 \equiv 4 (\mbox{mod } 9) because 1 \cdot 9 = 13-4On the Wolfram mathworld website there are other examples in (8):
2 \cdot 4 \equiv 1 (\mbox{mod } 7)
3 \cdot 3 \equiv 2 (\mbox{mod } 7)
6 \cdot 6 \equiv 1 (\mbox{mod } 7)
So far, so good.
But then in (9) they write:
\frac{1}{2} \equiv 4 (\mbox{mod } 7)
\frac{1}{4} \equiv 2 (\mbox{mod } 7)
\frac{2}{3} \equiv 3 (\mbox{mod } 7)
\frac{1}{6} \equiv 6 (\mbox{mod } 7)
which I don't understand.
At first I thought that for fractions a and b the definition is just extended:
a \equiv b (\mbox{mod } m) \Longleftrightarrow \exists k \in \mathbb{Z} : km = a-b
with a and b fractions (instead of just integers).
But the definition of congruence for fractions must be different since
there is no k \in \mathbb{N} such that
\frac{1}{2} - 4 = k \cdot 7:
\frac{1}{2} - 4 = k \cdot 7
\Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} - \frac{8}{2} = k \cdot 7
\Rightarrow -\frac{7}{2} = k \cdot 7
\Rightarrow k=-\frac{1}{2}My questions:
a) How are congruences defined for fractions? And why is (9) correct?
b) Does (8) imply (9) ?
For integers a and b the following is defined:
a and b are congruent modulo m (m is a natural number) if there exists
an integer k such that k*m = a-b
a \equiv b (\mbox{mod } m) \Longleftrightarrow \exists k \in \mathbb{Z} : km = a-b
For example:
13 \equiv 4 (\mbox{mod } 9) because 1 \cdot 9 = 13-4On the Wolfram mathworld website there are other examples in (8):
2 \cdot 4 \equiv 1 (\mbox{mod } 7)
3 \cdot 3 \equiv 2 (\mbox{mod } 7)
6 \cdot 6 \equiv 1 (\mbox{mod } 7)
So far, so good.
But then in (9) they write:
\frac{1}{2} \equiv 4 (\mbox{mod } 7)
\frac{1}{4} \equiv 2 (\mbox{mod } 7)
\frac{2}{3} \equiv 3 (\mbox{mod } 7)
\frac{1}{6} \equiv 6 (\mbox{mod } 7)
which I don't understand.
At first I thought that for fractions a and b the definition is just extended:
a \equiv b (\mbox{mod } m) \Longleftrightarrow \exists k \in \mathbb{Z} : km = a-b
with a and b fractions (instead of just integers).
But the definition of congruence for fractions must be different since
there is no k \in \mathbb{N} such that
\frac{1}{2} - 4 = k \cdot 7:
\frac{1}{2} - 4 = k \cdot 7
\Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} - \frac{8}{2} = k \cdot 7
\Rightarrow -\frac{7}{2} = k \cdot 7
\Rightarrow k=-\frac{1}{2}My questions:
a) How are congruences defined for fractions? And why is (9) correct?
b) Does (8) imply (9) ?
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