Exist some conection between: $$\int_{0}^{+\infty} f(t) \exp(-st)dt\;\;(1)$$ $$\int_{-\infty}^{0} f(t) \exp(-st)dt\;\;(2)$$ ?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

The results, the transformations, are very similar, with some little difference in the signal. So, known the transformation (1), is possible to find the (2)?

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# Connection between unilateral laplace

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