Convolution proof where f=g=1/(1+x^2)

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    Convolution Proof
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the convolution of two functions, specifically where both functions are defined as f = g = 1/(1+x^2). Participants explore the implications of the convolution theorem in the context of Laplace and Fourier transforms, aiming to demonstrate the equality of the left-hand side and right-hand side of the convolution theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks insight into proving the equality of the convolution theorem, specifically applying it to the functions f and g.
  • Another participant suggests exploring polynomial integration related to the integral form of the convolution, but finds it unhelpful.
  • Some participants point out a potential misunderstanding regarding the formulation of the convolution theorem, emphasizing that convolution should not appear on both sides of the equation.
  • There is a correction regarding the representation of the right-hand side, where it should involve L(f) squared rather than a factor of 2 times L(f).
  • One participant expresses that their main challenge lies in evaluating the integral on the left-hand side of the equation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the need to clarify the formulation of the convolution theorem, but there is no consensus on the best approach to evaluate the integral or the specific strategies to apply.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not resolved the mathematical steps necessary for evaluating the integral, and there are unresolved assumptions regarding the application of the convolution theorem in this context.

polpol
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So I am looking for some insight one how I might go about solving this problem.

I have two equations f and g where [tex]f = g = \frac{1}{(1+x^2)}.[/tex]

The convolution theorem states that [tex]L(f*g) = L(f)*L(g)[/tex] where L can be either the Laplace transform or the Fourier transform.

So it will look like this [tex]\mathcal{L} \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(t)g(x-t) dt = \mathcal{L} f(x) \cdot \mathcal{L} g(x)[/tex]

[tex]\mathcal{L} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{(1+t^2)(t^2-2tx+x^2+1)} dt = 2 \cdot \mathcal{L} \frac{1}{1+x^2} dx[/tex]

I have to show that the left hand side and the right hand side are the same. I have tried to use both Laplace and Fourier transforms and partial fractions and lots of algebra manipulation as well as looking at integral tables.

What would be your strategy or the key point you would look at to go about showing this is true?
 
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One thing I thought was promising was a polynomial integration with
[itex]\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{t^4 +c_1t^3+c_2t^2+c_3t+c_4} dt[/itex]
where [itex]c1 = -2x, c2 = 2x^2, c3 = -x, c4 = x^2 + 1[/itex]
but I couldn't find anything useful from there.

I'm interested in seeing this what would your strategies be? What toolbox would you reach for?
 
There shouldn't be a convolution on both sides of your equality. It should be L(f*g) = L(f)L(g) (or vice versa)
 
Office_Shredder said:
There shouldn't be a convolution on both sides of your equality. It should be L(f*g) = L(f)L(g) (or vice versa)

You are right; I meant to use the * as multiplication on the right side and that was unclear. I will edit it and fix it.
 
Is your main problem evaluating the integral on the left hand side?

Also the right hand side should be L(f)2 not 2L(f)
 
Office_Shredder said:
Is your main problem evaluating the integral on the left hand side?

Also the right hand side should be L(f)2 not 2L(f)

Yes that is true, I did a terrible job of writing that out.

My main effort has been evaluating the integral on the left hand side because I believe if I can solve for that or show it equal to the right in some way that is all I need.
 

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