Correct My Mistakes: Showing $A\,x\,C\,=\,B\,x\,C$ if $A\cap B=\emptyset$

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Discussion Overview

The thread discusses the mathematical problem of demonstrating the relationship between Cartesian products of sets, specifically addressing the implications of the condition that two sets, A and B, are disjoint (i.e., their intersection is empty). The discussion includes attempts to clarify the reasoning behind the statements and proofs related to this condition, as well as exploring the relationship between the intersection of Cartesian products and the intersection of the original sets.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose that if \(A \cap B = \emptyset\), then \((A \times C) \cap (B \times C) = \emptyset\), arguing that no ordered pair \((x,c)\) can belong to both products.
  • Others challenge the reasoning, suggesting that the argument appears to assume the emptiness of \(A \cap B\) rather than demonstrating it from the emptiness of the intersection of the Cartesian products.
  • A participant provides a specific example with sets \(A = \{1,2\}\), \(B = \{3,4\}\), and \(C = \{s,t\}\) to illustrate the concept, showing that the Cartesian products are indeed empty when \(A\) and \(B\) are disjoint.
  • Some participants express confusion about the requirements of the problem and seek clarification on how to properly demonstrate the statements involved.
  • There is a discussion about the correct interpretation of the problem, with some participants suggesting that the original poster may be misunderstanding the direction of the proof required.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally do not reach a consensus, as there are competing interpretations of the problem and the reasoning involved. Some agree on the validity of the example provided, while others remain uncertain about the implications of the statements made regarding the Cartesian products.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the original problem may not explicitly ask to show \(A \cap B = \emptyset\) but rather to demonstrate the emptiness of the intersection of the Cartesian products under the assumption that \(A\) and \(B\) are disjoint. There is also mention of potential misunderstandings regarding the logical flow of the arguments presented.

bergausstein
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please correct my mistakes in this solution in 1 and help me solve 2.

1. show that if $A\cap B\,=\,\emptyset$, then $\left(A\,x\,C\right)\cap \left(B\,x\,C\right)\,=\,\emptyset$ that is if A and B have no elements in common, then there can be no ordered pair $\left(x,c\right)$ which is in both AxB and BxC.

my solution,

$A\,x\,C\,=\,\{\left(a,c\right)|a\in A\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$
$B\,x\,C\,=\,\{\left(b,c\right)|b\in B\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$

since AxC and BxC have no elements in common $A\cap B\,=\,\emptyset$

2. explain why $\left(A\cap B\right)\,x\,C\,=\,\left(A\,x\,C \right)\cap \left(B\,x\,C\right)$, that is if an ordered pair (x,c) is in AxC and in BxC, then (x,c) must be in $\left(A\cap B\right)\,x\,C$ and conversely.

thanks!
 
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bergausstein said:
please correct my mistakes in this solution in 1 and help me solve 2.

1. show that if $A\cap B\,=\,\emptyset$, then $\left(A\,x\,C\right)\cap \left(B\,x\,C\right)\,=\,\emptyset$ that is if A and B have no elements in common, then there can be no ordered pair $\left(x,c\right)$ which is in both AxB and BxC.

my solution,

$A\,x\,C\,=\,\{\left(a,c\right)|a\in A\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$
$B\,x\,C\,=\,\{\left(b,c\right)|b\in B\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$

since AxC and BxC have no elements in common $A\cap B\,=\,\emptyset$

2. explain why $\left(A\cap B\right)\,x\,C\,=\,\left(A\,x\,C \right)\cap \left(B\,x\,C\right)$, that is if an ordered pair (x,c) is in AxC and in BxC, then (x,c) must be in $\left(A\cap B\right)\,x\,C$ and conversely.

thanks!
Hey Bergausstein. You sure have a daunting nick right there! :)

In the first one you are doing the opposite of what you are required to do. You need to show the emptiness of $(A\times B)\cap(B\times C)$ by assuming that $A\cap B=\emptyset$.. not the other way round.

For the second one let $(x,y)\in (A\cap B)\times C$. Then $x\in A\cap B$ and $y\in C$. Thus $(x,y)\in A\times C$ and $(x,y)\in B\times C$. Therefore $(x,y)\in (A\times C)\cap (B\times C)$. For the reverse containment take $(x,y)\in (A\times C)\cap (B\times C)$. Thus $(x,y)\in A\times C$ and $(x,y)\in B\times C$. This means $x\in A\cap B$ and $y\in C$ and therefore $(x,y)\in (A\cap B)\times C$ and we are done.

Tell me if you have further doubts.
 
can you show me how will you answer 1.?
 
paulmdrdo said:
can you show me how will you answer 1.?
caffeinemachine has already showed that if $(x,y)\in (A\times C)\cap (B\times C)$ for some $x,y$, i.e., if $(A\times C)\cap (B\times C)$ is nonempty, then $x\in A\cap B$, i.e., $A\cap B$ is nonempty.
 
but the problem is asking to show the emptiness of $A\cap B$ not its non emptiness.
 
bergausstein said:
1. show that if $A\cap B\,=\,\emptyset$, then $\left(A\,\times\,C\right)\cap \left(B\,\times\,C\right)\,=\,\emptyset$

paulmdrdo said:
but the problem is asking to show the emptiness of $A\cap B$ not its non emptiness.
Really? Does the problem ask you to show $A\cap B=\emptyset$? Under which assumption?

LaTeX hints: Use \times for Cartesian product. There is no need to insert thin spaces; LaTeX is designed to insert correct spaces around operators and relations. Also, there is no need to write \left and \right unless the content between the parentheses is taller than them, e.g., when parentheses surround a fraction.
 
guys I'm still confused.

in my solution to prob. 1 I showed that,

$A\,\times\,C\,=\,\{\left(a,c\right)|a\in A\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$
$B\,\times\,C\,=\,\{\left(b,c\right)|b\in B\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$

there's no ordered pair common to both set. hence, $\left(A\,\times\,C\right)\cap \left(B\,\times C\right)\,=\,\emptyset$. how come I'm doing the other way around? please help me. can you give an example analogous to this problem. :(
 
bergausstein said:
guys I'm still confused.

in my solution to prob. 1 I showed that,

$A\,\times\,C\,=\,\{\left(a,c\right)|a\in A\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$
$B\,\times\,C\,=\,\{\left(b,c\right)|b\in B\,\wedge\,c\in C\}$

there's no ordered pair common to both set. hence, $\left(A\,\times\,C\right)\cap \left(B\,\times C\right)\,=\,\emptyset$. how come I'm doing the other way around? please help me. can you give an example analogous to this problem. :(

In your first post you have
"since AxC and BxC have no elements in common [FONT=MathJax_Math]A[FONT=MathJax_Main]∩[FONT=MathJax_Math]B[FONT=MathJax_Main]=[FONT=MathJax_Main]∅"
This sounds like you are trying to show $(A\times C)\cap (B\times C)=\emptyset ~\Rightarrow ~A\cap B=\emptyset$.. don't you think?
 
if you want example consider this

Say $A=\{1,2\}$ , $B=\{3,4\}$, $C=\{s,t\}$ you see that $A\cap B =\emptyset$

now if we take the product of A and C we have,
$A\times C = \{(1,s),\,(1,t),\,(2,s),\,(2,t)\}$
the product of B and C we have,
$B\times C = \{(3,s),\,(3,t),\,(4,s),\,(4,t)\}$

now if we take $(A\times C)\cap (B\times C)$ it is empty since they don't have elements in common.
now we can say that $(A\times C)\cap (B\times C)=\emptyset$ Because in the first place $A\cap B=\emptyset$.

hope this would help! :)
 
  • #10
now I understand it! thanks latebloomer.
 

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