Countable union of countable sets, proof without AC?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the proof that a countable union of countable sets is countable without relying on the axiom of countable choice (AC). The proof utilizes a bijective function from the set of prime numbers to a countable family of countable sets, demonstrating that the union of these sets remains countable. The author questions whether their proof implicitly requires some version of the axiom of choice, particularly in the selection of bijections for each countable set in the family.

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  • Understanding of cardinality and bijective functions
  • Familiarity with countable sets and their properties
  • Knowledge of the axiom of choice and its implications in set theory
  • Basic concepts of prime numbers and their properties
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Mathematicians, logicians, and students of set theory who are interested in the foundations of mathematics and the implications of choice axioms in proofs involving cardinality.

tauon
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Pretty much every proof of this I've seen uses the axiom of countable choice at some part or another, and I never got why, since it's pretty cumbersome. Here's the sketch of a proof I wrote for the "fact" that a countable union of countable sets is countable:

Let \ P:=\{\pi\in\mathbb{N}|\ \pi \ is \ prime\},\ \mathcal{E}:=\{{\pi}^n|\ \pi\in P,\ n\in{\mathbb{N}}^*\}\subset\mathbb{N},\ p:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow P \ a \ bijective \ function, \ p(i)=p_i\in P,\\ <br /> and\ let\ \mathcal{F}\ be \ a\ countable\ family\ of\ countable\ sets.\\<br /> <br /> Since \ \mathcal{F}\ is \ countable,\ there\ is\ a\ bijective\ function\ f:P\rightarrow\mathcal{F},\ f(\pi):=S_{\pi}\in\mathcal{F},\ and \ since \ every \ set \ in \ \mathcal{F} \ is \ countable \\<br /> for \ any \ f(p_i):=S_{p_i}\in\mathcal{F}\ there \ is \ a \ bijective \ function \<br /> \alpha_i:{p_i}^{\mathbb{N}}\rightarrow S_{p_i},\ where \ {p_i}^{\mathbb{N}}:=\{{p_i}^n|\ n\in{\mathbb{N}}^*\}\ and \ \alpha_i ({p_i}^k)=s_{{p_i}^k}\in S_{p_i} .\\<br /> Then\\ <br /> \bigcup_{S\in\mathcal{F}}S = \bigcup_{\pi\in P}S_{\pi}=\bigcup_{i\in\mathbb{N}}S_{p_i}=\bigcup_{i\in\mathbb{N}}\bigcup_{k\in{\mathbb{N}}^*}\{s_{{p_i}^k}\}=\bigcup_{\epsilon\in\mathcal{E}}\{s_{ \epsilon }\}\ (q.e.d.)

As I see it, I'm only using the definition and one property of cardinality, and a few properties of natural numbers (primes in particular), none of which (at least to my knowledge) require the use of the axiom of choice. But I'm no expert... Does this proof (implicitly) use some version of the axiom of choice? If so, where?
 
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tauon said:
since \ every \ set \ in \ \mathcal{F} \ is \ countable \\<br /> for \ any \ f(p_i):=S_{p_i}\in\mathcal{F}\ there \ is \ a \ bijective \ function \<br /> \alpha_i:{p_i}^{\mathbb{N}}\rightarrow S_{p_i},\ where \ {p_i}^{\mathbb{N}}:=\{{p_i}^n|\ n\in{\mathbb{N}}^*\}\dots
For each ##i##, there are infinitely many such bijections from ##{p_i}^{\mathbb{N}}## to ##S_{p_i}##, and the theorem, in its general formulation, does not tell which one of them to choose and call ##\alpha_i##. We need countable choice to select one such bijection for each ##i##.
 

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