Counting Marbles in Boxes: Solving Tough Combinatorics Problems

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The discussion focuses on combinatorial mathematics, specifically the problem of distributing M identical marbles into N boxes with a maximum limit of k marbles per box. The solution involves using combinations and factorials to derive the total configurations. For k equal to M, the formula is (M+N-1) choose M, while for k equal to 1, the configurations are represented by N choose M. The general formula for arbitrary k is derived by subtracting invalid arrangements from the total possible arrangements.

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qbert
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I've just managed to stump myself. Let's say you have
M (identical) marbles and N boxes. How many ways
can you put the marbles in the boxes if each box
can have at most k (k <= M) marbles?

for k=M we can take M .'s to be the marbles
and N-1 |'s to be the boxes so a valid configuration
is a sequence like ..|.|...||.. so we end up with
(M+N-1) choose M.

for k=1, we must have M<N, and
we have N choices for the first marble,
N-1 choices for the second, ...
which is just N choose M possibilities.

is there a formula for arbitrary k?
 
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The trick here is to subtract the invalid orderings.

first, let [tex]t = n+m-1[/tex] to simplify things a bit.

If we can separate the m balls into n boxes without restriction we get n-1 bars and m balls:

[tex]N_{all} = \frac{t!}{m!(n-1)!}[/tex]

If we want to make sure we have at least k+1 balls in a box, we group k+1 balls together and treat them like they're a single weird ball. An example of this is ".|..|{...}.|||", where three of the balls are placed in a set. Then we have n-1 bars, m-(k+1) balls, and 1 weird ball (note that I still divide by m! because you can swap balls within the weird ball with balls outside of it):

[tex]N_{remove} = \frac{((n-1)+(m-(k+1))+(1))!}{m!(n-1)!}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{(n+m-k-1)!}{m!(n-1)!}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{(t-k)!}{m!(n-1)!}[/tex]

Now, all the permutations we want to remove just happen to have at least k+1 balls together, so:

[tex]N = N_{all} - N_{remove}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{t!}{m!(n-1)!} - \frac{(t-k)!}{m!(n-1)!}}[/tex]

[tex]=\frac{t! - (t-k)!}{m!(n-1)!}[/tex]

not counting any stupid errors I made, of course.

EDIT: Fixed a mistake (forgot to include balls within weird ball in the denominator)
 
Last edited:
so we meet again, subtraction--my arch enemy!

That was exceedingly clever. Thanks for your help.
 

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