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My professors asked me why we don't usually consider the second Friedman equation. He told me that the solutions for the first always give a solution for the second. He told me that the first equation along with it's time derivative can imply the second equation. I have been trying the algebra for a long time now, but I am not being able to get ahead.

I wanted to know if the statement that the professor made is true in the first place.

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# I Deriving the second Friedman equation from the first.

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