- #1
thebiggerbang
- 75
- 0
Hello!
My professors asked me why we don't usually consider the second Friedman equation. He told me that the solutions for the first always give a solution for the second. He told me that the first equation along with it's time derivative can imply the second equation. I have been trying the algebra for a long time now, but I am not being able to get ahead.
I wanted to know if the statement that the professor made is true in the first place.
My professors asked me why we don't usually consider the second Friedman equation. He told me that the solutions for the first always give a solution for the second. He told me that the first equation along with it's time derivative can imply the second equation. I have been trying the algebra for a long time now, but I am not being able to get ahead.
I wanted to know if the statement that the professor made is true in the first place.