Determining the value of B1 (or RF) in NMR

  • Thread starter Thread starter Bubble22
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Nmr Rf Value
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on determining the value of B1 in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) based on the time it takes for magnetization to rotate from the z-axis to the xy-plane. The key formula presented is ω = γB1 = 2∏f1, where ω represents the angular frequency, γ is the gyromagnetic ratio, and f1 is the frequency of precession. The conversation emphasizes the need to express the frequency in terms of the period (t) and to calculate the fraction of one cycle corresponding to the rotation from the z-axis to the xy-plane, which is a 90-degree transition.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) principles
  • Familiarity with angular frequency and its relationship to magnetic fields
  • Knowledge of the gyromagnetic ratio (γ)
  • Basic grasp of trigonometric functions and angles in radians
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the gyromagnetic ratio (γ) in NMR applications
  • Learn about the relationship between angular frequency and magnetic field strength in NMR
  • Explore the concept of precession and its mathematical representation in NMR
  • Investigate the implications of B1 field strength on NMR signal quality and resolution
USEFUL FOR

Researchers, physicists, and students in the field of NMR spectroscopy, as well as anyone involved in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and related technologies.

Bubble22
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
Hello

If the time that takes for magnetization to rotate from its initial position (parallel with external magnetization) to x,y plane is given, how do we determine the value of B1?

The formula I know:
ω = γB1 = 2∏f1
lB1l < lBol
angle between the magnetization and the external magnetization = ωt = γB1t

Thank you :smile:
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You wrote down the frequency of precession (from the z axis to -z and back to +z) in terms of B1. Now write the frequency in terms of period (time) f_1=1 / t_1 for one cycle. What fraction of one cycle is the journey from the z axis to the xy plane?
 
marcusl said:
You wrote down the frequency of precession (from the z axis to -z and back to +z) in terms of B1. Now write the frequency in terms of period (time) f_1=1 / t_1 for one cycle. What fraction of one cycle is the journey from the z axis to the xy plane?
I'm not quite sure what you meant ..
So basically I have ω = γB1 = 2∏f1 formula, and if I write this in terms of period it would be like
ω = γB1 = 2∏(1/t).. and I'm lost afterwards.. could you be kind to explain more in detail?
 
Last edited:
You now have t_1(360) in terms of B1. I've written it with the argument 360 because this period is the length of time for the spin to precess from the z direction down to the xy plane, on to -z, back to the xy plane, and back up to z, for a total angle of 360 degrees. You want the time it takes to go from z to the xy plane, which is an angle of 90 deg. You have everything needed to find that value.
 

Similar threads

Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
5K
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
837
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K