jostpuur
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- 19
Claim 1:
If \psi(x,0) has a compact support, and
<br /> i\partial_t\psi(x,t) = -\partial_x^2 \psi(x,t),<br />
then \psi(x,t) does not have a compact support for any t>0.
Claim 2:
If \psi_1 and \psi_2 are the same in some environment of a point x_0, then
<br /> \partial_x^2 \psi_1(x_0) = \partial_x^2 \psi_2(x_0)<br />
Claim 3:
If \psi(x,0) has a compact support, and
<br /> i\partial_t\psi(x,t) = \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2} \psi(x,t),<br />
then \psi(x,t) does not have a compact support for any t>0.
Question:
If \psi_1 and \psi_2 are the same in some environment of x_0, will it follow that
<br /> \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2}\psi_1(x_0) = \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2}\psi_2(x_0)?<br />
Thoughts:
According to my understanding, at least with some assumptions, the claims 1,2,3 are all true. If I had not mentioned the claims 1 and 2, some people might have answered to my question, that the pseudo-differential operator \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2} does not possesses the locality property I'm asking in the question, because we know that it is non-local in the sense of the claim 3. However, we know that the ordinary differential operator \partial_x^2 has the non-locality property in the sense of claim 1 too, and still it has the locality property in the sense of claim 2. So without better knowledge, it could be that the pseudo-differential operator has this locality property too. But what's the truth?
If \psi(x,0) has a compact support, and
<br /> i\partial_t\psi(x,t) = -\partial_x^2 \psi(x,t),<br />
then \psi(x,t) does not have a compact support for any t>0.
Claim 2:
If \psi_1 and \psi_2 are the same in some environment of a point x_0, then
<br /> \partial_x^2 \psi_1(x_0) = \partial_x^2 \psi_2(x_0)<br />
Claim 3:
If \psi(x,0) has a compact support, and
<br /> i\partial_t\psi(x,t) = \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2} \psi(x,t),<br />
then \psi(x,t) does not have a compact support for any t>0.
Question:
If \psi_1 and \psi_2 are the same in some environment of x_0, will it follow that
<br /> \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2}\psi_1(x_0) = \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2}\psi_2(x_0)?<br />
Thoughts:
According to my understanding, at least with some assumptions, the claims 1,2,3 are all true. If I had not mentioned the claims 1 and 2, some people might have answered to my question, that the pseudo-differential operator \sqrt{1 - \partial_x^2} does not possesses the locality property I'm asking in the question, because we know that it is non-local in the sense of the claim 3. However, we know that the ordinary differential operator \partial_x^2 has the non-locality property in the sense of claim 1 too, and still it has the locality property in the sense of claim 2. So without better knowledge, it could be that the pseudo-differential operator has this locality property too. But what's the truth?