- #1

QFT1995

- 30

- 1

$$

\mathcal{L} = \imath {\bar{\Psi}} (\gamma^\mu {\partial}_\mu - m_0 )\Psi - \frac{1}{2}g: \left( \bar{\Psi} \gamma_\mu \Psi \right)\left( \bar{\Psi} \gamma^\mu \Psi \right): .

$$

and Hamiltonian

$$

\int \mathrm{d}x \imath \Psi^\dagger \sigma_z \partial_x \Psi + m_0 \Psi^\dagger \Psi + 2g \Psi^\dagger_1 \Psi^\dagger_2 \Psi_2\Psi_1\\

$$

Due to the infinite set of conservation laws, particle production is said to be absent from this theory. However why isn't it sufficient to show that particle production is absent if the number operator $$N=\int \mathrm{d}x \Psi^\dagger \Psi$$ commutes the the Hamiltonian? Also, by particle production being absent, is that just a statement that all Feynman diagrams with self energy insertions evaluate to 0 but all other Feynman diagrams are possible?