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I was reading on wikipedia on direct product of groups because I wanted find out if every subgroup of [itex]G \times H[/itex] is realized as a direct product of subgroups of G and H. Apparently it is not, because the diagonal subgroup in [itex]G \times G[/itex] disproves this. I'm a little confused, because I thought the proof I wrote was correct
for a subgroup write [itex]A \times B[/itex] where A is a subset of G, and B a subset of H. Can't you show A is a subgroup of G using [itex](g,1)[/itex] and analogously with B? For example
m,n in A then [itex](m,1),(n,1)[/itex] are in [itex]A \times B[/itex]. Hence [itex](mn,1)[/itex] is and therefore mn is in A?
There must be something wrong? Is the property true for certain type of groups? But I didn't use anything about G and H.
for a subgroup write [itex]A \times B[/itex] where A is a subset of G, and B a subset of H. Can't you show A is a subgroup of G using [itex](g,1)[/itex] and analogously with B? For example
m,n in A then [itex](m,1),(n,1)[/itex] are in [itex]A \times B[/itex]. Hence [itex](mn,1)[/itex] is and therefore mn is in A?
There must be something wrong? Is the property true for certain type of groups? But I didn't use anything about G and H.