Sorry, I made a typo above: it should read
[tex]r_1(t)=\left< t,t^2,t^3\right> ,\mbox{ for } 1\leq t\leq 2[/tex]
Since t=0 and u=0 generate different points on the curve in R^3, which are, [itex]r_1(0)=\left< 0,0,0\right>[/itex], and [itex]r_2(0)=\left< 1,1,1\right>[/itex], they shouldn't have the same tangent vectors.
But when evaluated at the same point on the curve, they should be the same, that is
[tex]r_1^{\prime}(t)=\left< 1,2t,3t^2\right> ,\mbox{ for } 1\leq t\leq 2[/tex]
and [tex]r_2^{\prime}(u)=\left< e^u,2e^{2u},3e^{3u}\right> ,\mbox{ for } 0\leq u\leq \ln 2[/tex]
Notice that the points generated by the parameterizations are related such that:
[tex]r_1\left( e^u\right) =r_2(u) /mbox{ and } r_2\left( \ln(t) \right) =r_1(t)[/tex]
and hence the relations:[tex]r_1^{\prime}\left( e^u\right)e^u =r_2^{\prime}(u) /mbox{ and } r_2^{\prime}\left( \ln(t) \right) \frac{1}{t} =r_1^{\prime}(t)[/tex] hold for the ranges [itex]1\leq t\leq 2, 0\leq u\leq \ln 2[/itex]
So, I suppose the answer to your question is: no, they're not the same, but there does exist some relation between them (these two, that is). I think... no, I can't figure it out. Different parameterizations of a curve, still describe the same curve, right? Hmmm. Geometry: try parameterizing w.r.t. arc length along the curve, see calculus book: try Stewart.