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Do equivalent quantum states imply entanglement?

  1. Jun 9, 2007 #1
    Assume there are two particles which share the same quantum states (that is, if I understand correctly, both are probabilistically identical), but have not been through the process of entanglement. Let's assume they never interacted in any dimensions, they just happened to be identical. Would they thus be entangled because they're identical? That is, would action on one affect it's partner in the same way if it was traditionally entangled?
  2. jcsd
  3. Jun 11, 2007 #2
    Am I thinking about this the wrong way?

    Perhaps someone should throw me a book suggestion.
  4. Jun 11, 2007 #3


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    If they have the same quantum state, they cannot be entangled. By definition, an entangled state is one which cannot be factored into a product of two one-particle state wavefunctions. If the two particles are exactly in the same quantum state, th etotal wavefunction is simply the product of those two identical wavefunctions and is therefore not an entangled state.
  5. Jun 11, 2007 #4
    Righto, thank you.
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