Does a nucleus actually contain its binding energy?

[jumbogala]

Homework Statement

This is not really a homework question -just something I realized I don't understand. I am confused about binding energy of a nucleus. I understand that the definition of binding energy is the energy required to completely separate the protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

Let's say a nucleus of some kind has a binding energy of 10 eV. That means I will have to input 10 eV to separate the parts of the nucleus.

However, does this mean that the nucleus actually has 10 eV stored in it? For example, I can measure how much kinetic energy a moving object has or contains. Does binding energy work the same way? Is the binding energy actually the amount of energy the nucleus contains?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

When you add energy to a nucleus to overcome the binding energy, are you giving the individual protons and neutrons more potential energy as they separate? I think so (not 100% sure though).

So when the nucleus is all bound together, it should have zero potential energy. So I don't think binding energy is something the nucleus actually has... it seems to be the nucleus is in a zero-energy state before it is separated. This seems not quite right though... Thanks in advance!

 

[jbriggs444]

So when the nucleus is all bound together, it should have zero potential energy.

If we were considering gravitational potential energy, the zero point is conventionally taken with the gravitating objects at infinity. Gravitational potential energy is always negative otherwise.

Same thing with the strong force. The binding energy is not some surplus that the nucleus has. Instead, it is a deficit.