Does H(r) Equal Hψ(r) in Quantum Mechanics?

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andyc100
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Does [tex]H(\underline{r})=H\psi(\underline{r})[/tex] ?
 
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...in my textbook it says that [tex]P\psi(\underline{r})=\psi(\underline{-r})[/tex] where P is the parity operator.

and that [tex]H(\underline{r})=H(\underline{-r})[/tex]

Thus [tex]P\psi(\underline{r})=p\psi(\underline{r})[/tex] where p is the parity eigenvalue.

Im having difficulty getting to this myself. Could some one please show me how?
 
andyc100 said:
Does [tex]H(\underline{r})=H\psi(\underline{r})[/tex] ?

This makes no sense. In the lhs you have an operator and in the rhs you have a vector. Also, in you second post, the <conclusion> is actually an assumption. The assumption is that P is an operator in Hilbert space for which the spectral equation makes sense.