Seacow1988 Messages 9 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Feb 17, 2011 #1 If S=sup {Sn: n>N}, is it true that kS= sup{kSn: n>N} where k is any scalar? Thanks!
Seacow1988 Messages 9 Reaction score 0 Feb 17, 2011 #2 Woops. I meant k is any nonnegative scalar. Thanks!
micromass Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Homework Helper Insights Author Messages 22,170 Reaction score 3,335 Feb 17, 2011 #3 Yes, I think that this is indeed true for nonnegative scalars k. The proof is not so hard: just show that S is an upper bound and that no lower upper bound exists.
Yes, I think that this is indeed true for nonnegative scalars k. The proof is not so hard: just show that S is an upper bound and that no lower upper bound exists.