Does the Ratio Test Guarantee Divergence? Proving with Bernoulli's Inequality

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that if the limit of the ratio of consecutive terms, Lim|a_{n+1}/a_{n}| = L > 1, then the sequence {a_{n}} diverges to infinity as n approaches infinity. Participants emphasize the necessity of demonstrating that |a_{n+1}| > r|a_{n}| for some r > 1 and sufficiently large n, using induction. They also clarify that if L > 1, the sequence is unbounded, and Bernoulli's Inequality can be applied to substantiate this conclusion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits and sequences in calculus
  • Familiarity with the Ratio Test for convergence
  • Knowledge of mathematical induction
  • Basic principles of Bernoulli's Inequality
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of Bernoulli's Inequality in proving divergence
  • Learn about mathematical induction techniques in proofs
  • Explore the Ratio Test and its implications for series convergence
  • Investigate the properties of unbounded sequences in calculus
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Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on sequences and series, as well as educators looking for effective proof techniques in mathematical analysis.

dtl42
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Homework Statement


Show that if Lim|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_{n}}| = L > 1, then {a_{n}\rightarrow \infty as n\rightarrow\infty

Also, from that, deduce that a_{n} does not approach 0 as n \rightarrow \infty.

Homework Equations


The book suggests showing some number r>1 such that for some number N, |a_{n+1}|> r|a_{n}| for all n >N.
 
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Okay, and what have you done on this problem? Have you shown, perhaps by induction on n, that |a_{n+1}|> r|a_n|? Once you've done that, you might consider the "comparison test".
 
How would I start that proof by induction? How can I verify that <br /> |a_{2}|&gt; r|a_{1}|<br />. Also, for the second part, once I show that |a_{n}| tends to \infty isn't it basic logic that a_{n} cannot approach 0?
 
dtl42 said:
How would I start that proof by induction? How can I verify that <br /> |a_{2}|&gt; r|a_{1}|<br />.
You can't. It's not necessarily true. However, since the limit a_{n+1}/a_n is less than 1, it must be true for some N. Start your induction from that.

Also, for the second part, once I show that |a_{n}| tends to \infty
isn't it basic logic that a_{n} cannot approach 0?

Yes, it is. Just state the basic logic.
 
HallsofIvy said:
You can't. It's not necessarily true. However, since the limit a_{n+1}/a_n is less than 1, it must be true for some N. Start your induction from that.

Do you mean greater than 1, or am I really missing something? And how would I start the induction? Just that for some N, |a_{2}|&gt;r|a_{1}|?
 
dtl42 said:
Do you mean greater than 1, or am I really missing something? And how would I start the induction? Just that for some N, |a_{2}|&gt;r|a_{1}|?

If L>1, then is the sequence {a_{n}} bounded or unbounded?
Suppose not, If L<1, then what happens when {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } a_{n}?
 
If L>1 then the sequence would be unbounded right? Because the next larger term is always of a greater magnitude than the previous. If L is less than 1, then the sequence is bounded, and the limit goes to 0?
 
dtl42 said:
If L>1 then the sequence would be unbounded right? Because the next larger term is always of a greater magnitude than the previous. If L is less than 1, then the sequence is bounded, and the limit goes to 0?

Correct.

Now, since book suggested: show that |a_{n+1}|&gt; r|a_{n}| for all indices n\geq N, you can use the Binomial formula to show that the sequences is unbounded. Hope that's clear.
 
REALLY IRRELEVANT but...
i've always wondered this, but how do you guys get all those math symbols in there? like the absolute value symbol, or the greater than equal to sign?
 
  • #10
oceanflavored said:
REALLY IRRELEVANT but...
i've always wondered this, but how do you guys get all those math symbols in there? like the absolute value symbol, or the greater than equal to sign?

It's LaTeX https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=8997
 
  • #11
konthelion said:
Correct.

Now, since book suggested: show that |a_{n+1}|&gt; r|a_{n}| for all indices n\geq N, you can use the Binomial formula to show that the sequences is unbounded. Hope that's clear.

What do you mean by the Binomial Formula? I'm still kind of confused after taking several days away.
 
  • #12
Well, you can use Bernoulli's Inequality, which is (1+b)^n \geq 1 +nb

Suppose that L&gt;1, then define b=\frac{L+1}{2} since b<L. There exists a natural number N such that
\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_{n}} \geq b for all indices n \geq N (just a reiteration of the problem)

From here, use the Bernoulli's inequality to show that for some k and let r = b^k, then |a_{N+k}| \geq r|a_{N}| which implies that the sequence a_{n}(the hint that your book gave) is unbounded.
 

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