Equivalent definition of the supremum

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The discussion centers on the definition of the supremum of a set M, where M is a subset of the real numbers (R). The proposed equivalent definition states that y=sup{M} if and only if, for any real number x, y being an upper bound of M implies that y > x leads to the existence of an m in M such that m ≥ x. The participants confirm that this revised definition is correct, contrasting it with the incorrect assertion that y ≥ x implies m ≥ x for some m in M.

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submartingale
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Hello everyone,

is the following an equivalent definition of the supremum of a set M, M subset of R?

y=sup{M} if and only if

given that y is an upper bound of M and x is any real number,
y >= x implies there exists m in M so that m >=x.

pf:
Let x_n be a sequence approaching y from the right. Then
for each x_n, there exists m_n in M so that m_n >=x_n.
Since y is an upper bound of M, then we have that y= lim m_n >= lim x_n.
Therefore, if m' is any another upper bound, then m'>=y for all m in M.

Thanks
 
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This is not true. Specifically, if y=sup(M), then it does not need to holds that y>=x implies m>=x for an m.

Indeed, take y=x.
 


micromass said:
This is not true. Specifically, if y=sup(M), then it does not need to holds that y>=x implies m>=x for an m.

Indeed, take y=x.

If you take y=x, then there exists m in M so that m>=x=y. But y is an upper bound of M, so y=x=m.
 


Take A=]0,1[, then y=1 is a supremum. Does there exist an m in A such that m>=y??
 


micromass said:
Take A=]0,1[, then y=1 is a supremum. Does there exist an m in A such that m>=y??

What if we replace it by

y=sup{M} if and only if

given that y is an upper bound of M and x is any real number,
y >x implies there exists m in M so that m >=x.

Thanks
 


submartingale said:
What if we replace it by

y=sup{M} if and only if

given that y is an upper bound of M and x is any real number,
y >x implies there exists m in M so that m >=x.

Thanks

That's indeed correct.
 

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