Equivalent definition of the supremum

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the definition of the supremum of a set M, specifically whether a proposed equivalent definition holds true. Participants explore the implications of the definition in the context of real numbers and upper bounds.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that y=sup{M} if and only if y is an upper bound of M and for any real number x, y >= x implies there exists m in M such that m >= x.
  • Several participants challenge this definition, asserting that if y=sup(M), it does not necessarily follow that y >= x implies there exists an m in M such that m >= x.
  • One participant provides a counterexample using y=x to illustrate their point.
  • Another participant questions the existence of an m in the set A=]0,1[ such that m >= y when y=1, which is proposed as a supremum.
  • A revised definition is suggested, stating that y=sup{M} if and only if y is an upper bound of M and for any real number x, y > x implies there exists m in M such that m >= x.
  • A later reply agrees with the revised definition, stating that it is indeed correct.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the initial proposed definition of the supremum, with multiple competing views presented. The revised definition appears to gain some agreement, but the initial contention remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight specific cases and examples that challenge the initial definition, indicating that the discussion is limited by the need for precise definitions and the conditions under which the statements hold.

submartingale
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Hello everyone,

is the following an equivalent definition of the supremum of a set M, M subset of R?

y=sup{M} if and only if

given that y is an upper bound of M and x is any real number,
y >= x implies there exists m in M so that m >=x.

pf:
Let x_n be a sequence approaching y from the right. Then
for each x_n, there exists m_n in M so that m_n >=x_n.
Since y is an upper bound of M, then we have that y= lim m_n >= lim x_n.
Therefore, if m' is any another upper bound, then m'>=y for all m in M.

Thanks
 
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This is not true. Specifically, if y=sup(M), then it does not need to holds that y>=x implies m>=x for an m.

Indeed, take y=x.
 


micromass said:
This is not true. Specifically, if y=sup(M), then it does not need to holds that y>=x implies m>=x for an m.

Indeed, take y=x.

If you take y=x, then there exists m in M so that m>=x=y. But y is an upper bound of M, so y=x=m.
 


Take A=]0,1[, then y=1 is a supremum. Does there exist an m in A such that m>=y??
 


micromass said:
Take A=]0,1[, then y=1 is a supremum. Does there exist an m in A such that m>=y??

What if we replace it by

y=sup{M} if and only if

given that y is an upper bound of M and x is any real number,
y >x implies there exists m in M so that m >=x.

Thanks
 


submartingale said:
What if we replace it by

y=sup{M} if and only if

given that y is an upper bound of M and x is any real number,
y >x implies there exists m in M so that m >=x.

Thanks

That's indeed correct.
 

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