Derek P
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Indeed so but that's a weaker sense of ontic than I was using. I was just meaning that there is no reason why reality must actually be the wavefunction. A 1-1 map would be fine.akvadrako said:The reason the wavefunction must be ontic (which that I mean maps 1-to-1 onto reality) is given by the PBR and Colbeck and Renner theorems.