How Can We Prove E=hf Using Basic Physics Knowledge?

killer120
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then i want to know how to prove E=hf without any assumption but with our basic physics knowledge to prove the formula is actually explaining quantum physics theory....i still blur about the formula for quantum physics...thanks if someone help me out!
 
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In principle, you could "derive" it from other stuff, either using a Shrodinger-like equation, or a correspondance principle + symmetry arguments "a la Noether"... well. But I think that would not be fair. The formula was taken as an assumption, then we built a lot of stuff considering it correct, then we come up with 20-50 years of theoretical deepening, quantum gauge fields etc... and then we can come back and claim to derive E=h\nu. Looks pretty much like cheating to me... Are you researching something new in the foundation of quantum mechanics ?
 
The formula, as my understanding goes, was derived from experimentation. It is like a physics axiom. I have done this experiment myself and I found h to a good number of decimal places. I can't think of a way to derive it from classical physics though. Will have a think and probably realize it was simple all along. :biggrin:

The Bob
 
The equation E = hf can be empirically deduced for light waves with a simple photoelectric experiment. I think I even did it once back in college. In the context of quantum mechanics, this is taken as an assumption in the case of matter waves. Basically we just assume that matter waves behave like light waves. And from this, as well as the de Broglie relation, we get the Schrödinger Equation and all of quantum mechanics.
 
Simple:

E=hc/\lambda
c=\nu\lambda
so E=h\nu
 
Planck derived his constant from experiment, as described here: - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Planck's_constant

Some other constants and formulae we use in physics have not yet been deduced from first priciples.
Newton's laws.
Maxwell's equations.
The Schrödinger equation.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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