Find g: Solving a Set Theory Problem

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on finding a function g from the set {0,1} to the set B\A, where A = {{1}, 2, 3} and B = {∅, 1, {2}, 3}. The goal is to satisfy the condition f^-1(g(x)) = x + 2 for x ∈ {0, 1}, with f being a bijection from A to B\A. Participants clarify that while g cannot be a bijection, they can trace values using the two-row representation of f to establish the necessary mappings.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of set theory concepts, including bijections and surjections.
  • Familiarity with the notation of functions and inverse functions.
  • Knowledge of Cartesian products and power sets.
  • Ability to interpret and construct two-row representations of functions.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of bijections and surjections in set theory.
  • Learn how to construct and analyze two-row representations of functions.
  • Explore the concept of power sets and their implications in set theory.
  • Investigate the relationships between Cartesian products and mappings to other sets.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, computer scientists, and students studying discrete mathematics or set theory who seek to deepen their understanding of functions and their properties.

FallArk
Messages
127
Reaction score
0
Find a function g from {0,1} to B\A such that f^-1(g(x)) = x +2 for x∈{0,1}. Present it in the 2-row form.
A = {{1},2,3} and B = {∅,1,{2},3}
I know that B\A = {∅,1,{2}} and f is a bijection from A to B\A
how do I find such function g? It obviously can't be bijection, how do I match one value to another?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I figured it out, i just have to trace it using the function given to find for x=0 and 1 what is the corresponding values using the two row representation of f
 
FallArk said:
Find a function g from {0,1} to B\A such that f^-1(g(x)) = x +2 for x∈{0,1}. Present it in the 2-row form.
A = {{1},2,3} and B = {∅,1,{2},3}
I know that B\A = {∅,1,{2}} and f is a bijection from A to B\A
how do I find such function g? It obviously can't be bijection, how do I match one value to another?

Given A X (A∩B) = { ({1},3), (2,3), (3,3) }, and P(A)\B={ {1}, 2, {{1},2}, {{1},3}, {2,3}, {{1},2,3} }
does there exist a surjection from A X (A∩B) to P(A)\B?
 
FallArk said:
Find a function g from {0,1} to B\A such that f^-1(g(x)) = x +2 for x∈{0,1}. Present it in the 2-row form.
A = {{1},2,3} and B = {∅,1,{2},3}
I know that B\A = {∅,1,{2}} and f is a bijection from A to B\A
how do I find such function g? It obviously can't be bijection, how do I match one value to another?

Hey FallArk! (Smile)

If I understand correctly, we're talking about something like this:
\begin{tikzpicture}
%preamble \usetikzlibrary{shapes.geometric,fit}

\foreach \x in {0,1}{
\node[fill,circle,inner sep=2pt, label=left:\x] (d\x) at (0,\x) {};
}
\node[fit=(d0) (d1),ellipse,draw,minimum width=1.5cm] (D) {};

\foreach \x[count=\xi] in {0,1,2}{
\node[fill,circle,inner sep=2pt] (b\xi) at (4,\x) {};
}
\node[fit=(b1) (b2) (b3),ellipse,draw,minimum width=1.5cm] (BmA) {};
\node[above] at (BmA.north) {$B \setminus A$};

\foreach \x/\p[count=\xi] in {1/\{1\},2,3}{
\node[fill,circle,inner sep=2pt, label=right:\p] (a\xi) at (8,\x) {};
}
\node[fit=(a1) (a2) (a3),ellipse,draw,minimum width=1.5cm] (A) {};
\node[above] at (A.north) {$A$};

\draw[-latex] (d0) -- node[below] {$g(0)$} (b1);
\draw[-latex] (a2) -- node[above,xshift=8,yshift=12] {$f(2+0)$} (b1);
\draw[-latex] (d1) -- node[above] {$g(1)$} (b3);
\draw[-latex] (a3) -- node[above] {$f(2+1)$} (b3);
\draw[-latex] (a1) -- node[below right,xshift=10] {$f(1)$} (b2);
\end{tikzpicture}

However, we don't seem to have any information about which elements in $B \setminus A$ we should link to, do we? (Wondering)
 
I like Serena said:
Hey FallArk! (Smile)

If I understand correctly, we're talking about something like this:
\begin{tikzpicture}
%preamble \usetikzlibrary{shapes.geometric,fit}

\foreach \x in {0,1}{
\node[fill,circle,inner sep=2pt, label=left:\x] (d\x) at (0,\x) {};
}
\node[fit=(d0) (d1),ellipse,draw,minimum width=1.5cm] (D) {};

\foreach \x[count=\xi] in {0,1,2}{
\node[fill,circle,inner sep=2pt] (b\xi) at (4,\x) {};
}
\node[fit=(b1) (b2) (b3),ellipse,draw,minimum width=1.5cm] (BmA) {};
\node[above] at (BmA.north) {$B \setminus A$};

\foreach \x/\p[count=\xi] in {1/\{1\},2,3}{
\node[fill,circle,inner sep=2pt, label=right:\p] (a\xi) at (8,\x) {};
}
\node[fit=(a1) (a2) (a3),ellipse,draw,minimum width=1.5cm] (A) {};
\node[above] at (A.north) {$A$};

\draw[-latex] (d0) -- node[below] {$g(0)$} (b1);
\draw[-latex] (a2) -- node[above,xshift=8,yshift=12] {$f(2+0)$} (b1);
\draw[-latex] (d1) -- node[above] {$g(1)$} (b3);
\draw[-latex] (a3) -- node[above] {$f(2+1)$} (b3);
\draw[-latex] (a1) -- node[below right,xshift=10] {$f(1)$} (b2);
\end{tikzpicture}

However, we don't seem to have any information about which elements in $B \setminus A$ we should link to, do we? (Wondering)

I actually figured it out myself. But then I run into a new problem. Is it possible for a Cartesian product to be mapped into another set? (the third post is the problem)
 
FallArk said:
I actually figured it out myself. But then I run into a new problem. Is it possible for a Cartesian product to be mapped into another set? (the third post is the problem)

Okay.
For the record, it seems that $P(A)\setminus B$ contains elements that are integers, but $P(A)$ is supposed to only contain sets doesn't it? (Wondering)
I think it should contain {{1}} instead of {1}.
And {2}, which would then be removed by subtracting $B$.

And sure, we can map a cartesian product to another set.
I don't think the example will be surjective though, since the cartesian product contains 3 elements, and the co-domain contains more than 3 elements.
 
I like Serena said:
Okay.
For the record, it seems that $P(A)\setminus B$ contains elements that are integers, but $P(A)$ is supposed to only contain sets doesn't it? (Wondering)
I think it should contain {{1}} instead of {1}.
And {2}, which would then be removed by subtracting $B$.

And sure, we can map a cartesian product to another set.
I don't think the example will be surjective though, since the cartesian product contains 3 elements, and the co-domain contains more than 3 elements.

Ugh, this whole power set thing is so confusing... Surjective means something like for one y there could be more than one x right? So since there are more than 3 y-values, and only 3 x-values, it cannot be surjective.
 
FallArk said:
Ugh, this whole power set thing is so confusing... Surjective means something like for one y there could be more than one x right? So since there are more than 3 y-values, and only 3 x-values, it cannot be surjective.

Yep.
And more precisely, surjective means that for every y there has to be at least one x.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 27 ·
Replies
27
Views
4K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K