MHB Find the nth-order Taylor polynomials centered at 0, for n=0, 1, 2.

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The discussion focuses on finding the nth-order Taylor polynomials for the function f(x) = cos(3x) centered at 0 for n=0, 1, and 2. For n=0, the polynomial P_0(x) is approximated as 1. For n=1, P_1(x) remains 1 since the first derivative at 0 is 0. For n=2, P_2(x) is approximated as 1 - (9/2)x^2, derived from the second derivative at 0. The calculations are confirmed to be correct, with a note that the last expression should not include "f(x)."
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$\tiny{206.11.1.15-T}$
$\textsf{Find the nth-order Taylor polynomials
centered at 0, for $n=0, 1, 2.$}$ \\
$$\displaystyle f(x)=cos(3x)$$
$\textsf{using}\\$
$$P_n\left(x\right)
\approx\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}\frac{f^{(k)}\left(a\right)}{k!}x^k$$
$\textsf{n=0}\\$
$$P_0\left(x\right)\approx\frac{1}{0!}x^{0}\approx 1$$
$\textsf{n=1}\\$
$$P_1\left(x\right)\approx \frac{1}{0!}x^{0}+\frac{0}{1!}x^{1}= 1+0 = 1$$
$\textsf{n=2}\\$
$$P_2\displaystyle\left(x\right)\approx\frac{1}{0!}x^{0}+\frac{0}{1!}x^{1}+\frac{-9}{2!}x^{2}f\left(x\right)\approx 1- \frac{9}{2}x^{2}$$
$\textsf{first time to try this so kinda ?}$
☕
 
Last edited:
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cos(0)= 1. The derivative of cos(3x) is -3sin(3x) which is 0 at x= 0. The second derivatve is -9 cos(3x) which is -9 at x= 0.

So, yes, those are correct. (But there should be no "f(x)" in that last expression.)
 
HallsofIvy said:
cos(0)= 1. The derivative of cos(3x) is -3sin(3x) which is 0 at x= 0. The second derivatve is -9 cos(3x) which is -9 at x= 0.

So, yes, those are correct. (But there should be no "f(x)" in that last expression.)


thamk you, I'll post a couple more. the examples i look at are really hard to follow.
 
$\tiny{206.11.1.15-T}$
$\textsf{Find the nth-order Taylor polynomials
centered at 0, for $n=0, 1, 2.$}\\$
$$\displaystyle f(x)=cos(3x)$$
$\textsf{using}\\$
$$P_n\left(x\right)
\approx\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}\frac{f^{(k)}\left(a\right)}{k!}x^k$$
$\textsf{n=0}\\$
\begin{align}
f^0(x)&=cos(3x)\therefore f^0(0)=1 \\
P_0\left(x\right)&\approx\frac{1}{0!}x^{0}\approx 1
\end{align}
$\textsf{n=1}\\$
\begin{align}
f^1(x)&=-3\sin(3x)\therefore f^1(0)=0 \\
P_1\left(x\right)&\approx \frac{1}{0!}x^{0}+\frac{0}{1!}x^{1}= 1+0 \approx 1
\end{align}
$\textsf{n=2}\\$
\begin{align}
f^2(x)&=-9\cos(3x)\therefore f^2(0)=-9 \\
P_2 \left(x\right)&\approx\frac{1}{0!}x^{0}+\frac{0}{1!}x^{1}+\frac{-9}{2!}x^{2}
\approx 1- \frac{9}{2}x^{2}
\end{align}
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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