Finitism and .999....=1 question

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the mathematical equality of .999... and 1, with a focus on the implications of finitism and its relevance to this equality. Participants explore various perspectives on the representation of numbers, the philosophical aspects of finitism, and the mathematical reasoning behind the equality.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants express confusion about finitism and its implications for the equality .999... = 1, suggesting it seems incorrect.
  • One participant argues that .999... is simply a different representation of 1, and if considered as a limit, it equals 1.
  • Another participant emphasizes that the issue lies in the representation of numbers in the decimal system, drawing parallels to other bases where similar representations do not lead to confusion.
  • Some participants note that finitism is not widely accepted among mathematicians and question the validity of claims that .999... ≠ 1, suggesting such positions lead to unusual conclusions.
  • A geometric series approach is proposed as a way to understand the equality, indicating that the sum converges to 1 regardless of the number base used.
  • Participants discuss the potential for proving that the only ambiguity in decimal representation arises between infinite strings of 9's and infinite strings of 0's, suggesting a careful analysis could clarify this.
  • One participant raises the idea that .999... is the only other decimal representation for 1, proposing that this could be extended as a general result for other decimal representations.
  • A question is posed regarding how finitists define .999..., indicating a need for clarity on differing definitions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the implications of finitism or the equality .999... = 1. Multiple competing views remain, with some supporting the equality and others questioning it based on finitist principles.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the varying definitions of .999... among participants, the dependence on interpretations of finitism, and the unresolved nature of mathematical arguments presented.

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I had a discussion with someone about does .999...=1. She used finitism and I don't know enough about it to reply. I read a little about finitism but I don't know what to make of it, it just seems wrong
Can someone recommend a site with a good rebuttal
 
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The shortest version: ##0,999\ldots = 1##.
The short version: The left hand side is a different representation than on the right. So first of all, the left hand side has to be explained. If it is a limit, then it equals ##1##. If it is something else, then what?
The long version: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/0-999-0.919086/
 
##0.99999... = 0.\bar9= 3 \times \frac{1}{3} = \frac{3}{3} = 1##

I don't know anything about finitism. And I also don't know why one needs to be all philosophical about the question.

As I see it the problem just lies in the way numbers are represented in the decimal number system. Nobody would ever argue that ##\frac{3}{3} = 1##. If we used a number system base 60 like on our clocks where ##\frac{1}{3}## would be something like 20 minutes, the question whether 60 minutes is one hour wouldn't come up either.
 
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Just to pile on, apparently Finitism sees some academic discussion occasionally, but unless your friend is a research logician, she probably doesn't know as much about it as she thinks she does. The type of finitism that asserts ##0.999... \neq 1## also must assert some weird propositions, like ##N+1\ngtr N## for sufficiently large ##N##.
 
I suppose one particular way to see this equality can be to see it as a geometric series (probably already mentioned in thread linked above). For example, set:
a = initial term = 9/10
r = multiplication factor = 1/10

Because r<1 we know that the following sum converges:
a+ar+ar2+ar3+ar4...

S=a/(1-r)=1

Interestingly, a similar equality will seemingly follow no matter number-base system we use.

What is more interesting would be to prove the converse: That is, the only source of ambiguity in decimal representation can occur between:
---- decimal representations with infinite strings of 9's
---- decimal representations with infinite strings of 0's
I think it might be a bit tedious to prove but it could be done by a more careful analysis.

===============

Also I think probably the term ultrafinitism might be more in line with regards to question in OP.
 
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SSequence said:
What is more interesting would be to prove the converse: That is, the only source of ambiguity in decimal representation can occur between:
---- decimal representations with infinite strings of 9's
---- decimal representations with infinite strings of 0's
I think it might be a bit tedious to prove but it could be done by a more careful analysis.
Actually, I don't think it would be hard to prove at all. Any decimal fraction (i.e., base-10) that has an expression of the form ##.d_1d_2 \dots n999\dots## can also be represented as ##.d_1d_2 \dots m000\dots##, where m = n + 1. Of course, I'm not proving anything here, but for any given decimal fraction in the first form, you could prove that it is equal to the second form, using the same geometric series argument that you gave.

The ambiguity of these two decimal fractions has to do with 9 being the largest decimal digit. If we were dealing with base-2 fractions, 1 is the largest binary digit, so a binary fraction of the form ##.d_1d_2\dots n111\dots## would be the same as ##d_1d_2\dots m000\dots##, again with m = n + 1, and this could be proved in the same manner. In base-3, we have the ambiguity in trinary fractions of the form ##.d_1d_2 \dots n222\dots##, as 2 is the largest base-3 digit.
 
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Yeah, basically I think the most illustrative case would be of:
1=0.999...
I think apart from the equality of these (as is mentioned frequently), it is also important to show that 0.9999... is the only other decimal representation for 1**. I don't think it should be quite difficult (but certainly illustrative). Once one shows that it would be reasonably clear that it can be extended as a more general result.

Furthermore, one would also want to show that apart from certain kind of decimal representations(terminating ones and ones with infinite string of 9's), all other decimal representations uniquely describe a real number.

** Obviously assuming the convention that unnecessary 0's towards the end are cut-off. For example, 1.000 is counted as same decimal representation as 1.
 
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Well, how does she define 0,999... in her view?
 
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