MHB Generating Function for Gambler's Probs of Broke at Time n

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around finding a generating function for the probabilities of a gambler becoming broke at time n, given a starting amount of one dollar and the probabilities of winning or losing. It is established that the probability of becoming broke at even n is zero, while for odd n, the probability can be expressed using Catalan numbers. The generating function for these probabilities is derived as (1 - √(1 - 4p(1-p)x²)) / (2px). Participants explore whether alternative methods, such as expected value calculations or different distributions, could be used to solve the problem. Overall, the conversation highlights the relationship between the gambler's ruin problem and generating functions.
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Suppose a gambler starts with one dollar and plays a game in which he or she wins one dollar with probability p and loses one dollar with probability 1 - p. Let fn be the probability that he or she fi rst becomes broke at time n for n = 0, 1, 2... Find a generating function for these probabilities.

So I think this is a binomial distribution is it? because it is giving me the fn = probability when first become broke.
since it is asking to find a generating function is use the
mx(s) = rx(es).
so since (i think) it is a binomial dist
then i let X ~ Binomial(n, theta)
and we know that the rx(t) = (t x theta + 1 - theta)n
so mx(s) = rx(es) = (estheta + 1 - theta)n
am i on the right track? i think i am not.. please help?
 
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Re: generating function

oyth94 said:
Suppose a gambler starts with one dollar and plays a game in which he or she wins one dollar with probability p and loses one dollar with probability 1 - p. Let fn be the probability that he or she first becomes broke at time n for n = 0, 1, 2... Find a generating function for these probabilities.

So I think this is a binomial distribution is it? because it is giving me the fn = probability when first become broke.
since it is asking to find a generating function is use the
mx(s) = rx(es).
so since (i think) it is a binomial dist
then i let X ~ Binomial(n, theta)
and we know that the rx(t) = (t x theta + 1 - theta)n
so mx(s) = rx(es) = (estheta + 1 - theta)n
am i on the right track? i think i am not.. please help?

The first step is the computation of $p_{n}$, i.e. the probability that he/she first becomes broke at the n-th step. It is not too difficult to realize that $p_{n}=0$ for n even and for n odd is... $\displaystyle p_{2 n+ 1} = (1 - p)\ h_{n}\ [p\ (1-p)]^{n}\ (1)$ ... where $h_{n}$ obeys to the recursive relation... $\displaystyle h_{n+1} = h_{n} + n,\ h_{1}=1\ (2)$... so that is...

$\displaystyle p_{n}= (1-p)\ \frac{n^{2} - n + 2}{2}\ [p\ (1-p)]^{n}\ (3)$

The (3) can now be used to valuate the generating function... Kind regards $\chi$ $\sigma$
 
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Re: generating function

oyth94 said:
Suppose a gambler starts with one dollar and plays a game in which he or she wins one dollar with probability p and loses one dollar with probability 1 - p. Let fn be the probability that he or she first becomes broke at time n for n = 0, 1, 2... Find a generating function for these probabilities.

So I think this is a binomial distribution is it? because it is giving me the fn = probability when first become broke.
since it is asking to find a generating function is use the
mx(s) = rx(es).
so since (i think) it is a binomial dist
then i let X ~ Binomial(n, theta)
and we know that the rx(t) = (t x theta + 1 - theta)n
so mx(s) = rx(es) = (estheta + 1 - theta)n
am i on the right track? i think i am not.. please help?
This is a version of the gambler's ruin problem. As chisigma points out, the probability $f_n$ of becoming broke at the $n$th step is $0$ if $n$ is even. In the case where it is odd, $f_{2n+1} = C_np^n(1-p)^{n+1}$, where $C_n$ is the $n$th Catalan number. Using the first of those two links, you can check that the generating function for these probabilities can be expressed in the form $$\frac{1-\sqrt{1-4p(1-p)x^2}}{2px}.$$
 
Is there any other way to solve it besides using Catalan number and recursive relation and gamblers ruin?? Like using expected value or different distributions of some sort?
 
Hello, I'm joining this forum to ask two questions which have nagged me for some time. They both are presumed obvious, yet don't make sense to me. Nobody will explain their positions, which is...uh...aka science. I also have a thread for the other question. But this one involves probability, known as the Monty Hall Problem. Please see any number of YouTube videos on this for an explanation, I'll leave it to them to explain it. I question the predicate of all those who answer this...
I'm taking a look at intuitionistic propositional logic (IPL). Basically it exclude Double Negation Elimination (DNE) from the set of axiom schemas replacing it with Ex falso quodlibet: ⊥ → p for any proposition p (including both atomic and composite propositions). In IPL, for instance, the Law of Excluded Middle (LEM) p ∨ ¬p is no longer a theorem. My question: aside from the logic formal perspective, is IPL supposed to model/address some specific "kind of world" ? Thanks.
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