MHB Generating Function for Gambler's Probs of Broke at Time n

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The discussion revolves around finding a generating function for the probabilities of a gambler becoming broke at time n, given a starting amount of one dollar and the probabilities of winning or losing. It is established that the probability of becoming broke at even n is zero, while for odd n, the probability can be expressed using Catalan numbers. The generating function for these probabilities is derived as (1 - √(1 - 4p(1-p)x²)) / (2px). Participants explore whether alternative methods, such as expected value calculations or different distributions, could be used to solve the problem. Overall, the conversation highlights the relationship between the gambler's ruin problem and generating functions.
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Suppose a gambler starts with one dollar and plays a game in which he or she wins one dollar with probability p and loses one dollar with probability 1 - p. Let fn be the probability that he or she fi rst becomes broke at time n for n = 0, 1, 2... Find a generating function for these probabilities.

So I think this is a binomial distribution is it? because it is giving me the fn = probability when first become broke.
since it is asking to find a generating function is use the
mx(s) = rx(es).
so since (i think) it is a binomial dist
then i let X ~ Binomial(n, theta)
and we know that the rx(t) = (t x theta + 1 - theta)n
so mx(s) = rx(es) = (estheta + 1 - theta)n
am i on the right track? i think i am not.. please help?
 
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Re: generating function

oyth94 said:
Suppose a gambler starts with one dollar and plays a game in which he or she wins one dollar with probability p and loses one dollar with probability 1 - p. Let fn be the probability that he or she first becomes broke at time n for n = 0, 1, 2... Find a generating function for these probabilities.

So I think this is a binomial distribution is it? because it is giving me the fn = probability when first become broke.
since it is asking to find a generating function is use the
mx(s) = rx(es).
so since (i think) it is a binomial dist
then i let X ~ Binomial(n, theta)
and we know that the rx(t) = (t x theta + 1 - theta)n
so mx(s) = rx(es) = (estheta + 1 - theta)n
am i on the right track? i think i am not.. please help?

The first step is the computation of $p_{n}$, i.e. the probability that he/she first becomes broke at the n-th step. It is not too difficult to realize that $p_{n}=0$ for n even and for n odd is... $\displaystyle p_{2 n+ 1} = (1 - p)\ h_{n}\ [p\ (1-p)]^{n}\ (1)$ ... where $h_{n}$ obeys to the recursive relation... $\displaystyle h_{n+1} = h_{n} + n,\ h_{1}=1\ (2)$... so that is...

$\displaystyle p_{n}= (1-p)\ \frac{n^{2} - n + 2}{2}\ [p\ (1-p)]^{n}\ (3)$

The (3) can now be used to valuate the generating function... Kind regards $\chi$ $\sigma$
 
Last edited:
Re: generating function

oyth94 said:
Suppose a gambler starts with one dollar and plays a game in which he or she wins one dollar with probability p and loses one dollar with probability 1 - p. Let fn be the probability that he or she first becomes broke at time n for n = 0, 1, 2... Find a generating function for these probabilities.

So I think this is a binomial distribution is it? because it is giving me the fn = probability when first become broke.
since it is asking to find a generating function is use the
mx(s) = rx(es).
so since (i think) it is a binomial dist
then i let X ~ Binomial(n, theta)
and we know that the rx(t) = (t x theta + 1 - theta)n
so mx(s) = rx(es) = (estheta + 1 - theta)n
am i on the right track? i think i am not.. please help?
This is a version of the gambler's ruin problem. As chisigma points out, the probability $f_n$ of becoming broke at the $n$th step is $0$ if $n$ is even. In the case where it is odd, $f_{2n+1} = C_np^n(1-p)^{n+1}$, where $C_n$ is the $n$th Catalan number. Using the first of those two links, you can check that the generating function for these probabilities can be expressed in the form $$\frac{1-\sqrt{1-4p(1-p)x^2}}{2px}.$$
 
Is there any other way to solve it besides using Catalan number and recursive relation and gamblers ruin?? Like using expected value or different distributions of some sort?
 
There is a nice little variation of the problem. The host says, after you have chosen the door, that you can change your guess, but to sweeten the deal, he says you can choose the two other doors, if you wish. This proposition is a no brainer, however before you are quick enough to accept it, the host opens one of the two doors and it is empty. In this version you really want to change your pick, but at the same time ask yourself is the host impartial and does that change anything. The host...

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