Gravitational force on observed particle?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the gravitational force experienced by observed versus non-observed particles in a gravitational field. Participants explore whether these particles fall with the same acceleration and consider implications from quantum mechanics and classical physics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Debate/contested, Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions if there is an experimental difference in gravitational force between observed and non-observed particles, specifically whether they fall with the same acceleration.
  • Another participant highlights the challenge of controlling experiments, noting that measuring an observed particle alters its motional state due to measurement-induced back-action.
  • A participant seeks clarification on whether the gravitational attraction of a single observed particle aligns with classical physics, specifically Newtonian gravity, and asks if this has been experimentally validated.
  • A link is provided to a resource discussing neutron behavior, which may relate to the gravitational attraction of observed particles.
  • A later reply confirms that experiments involving neutron interference have been conducted, suggesting they provide evidence relevant to the initial question about gravitational attraction.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express uncertainty regarding the effects of observation on gravitational force and whether classical physics adequately describes the behavior of observed particles. The discussion includes competing views on the implications of measurement in quantum mechanics.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the dependence on experimental setups and the unresolved nature of how measurement affects particle behavior in gravitational fields.

Xenoman
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Is there any experimental difference in gravitational force for a non-observed particle versus an observed particle in a gravitational field? Basically my question is if they fall with the same acceleration?

The observed particle is observed the entire fall, but both the observed and the non-observed particles are detected at some given distance further down at bottom. (Probably an average of all tests in the non-observed particle case is needed in order to compare it to the observed one) The situation might be similar for electromagnetic waves.

Is there any quantum gravity theory that suggests that they should not fall with the same acceleration?
 
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It's problematic to arrange a proper control in this case because your measurement of the observed particle will change its motional state. Measurement induces a back-action on the particle.
 
Thank you for your answer, I see the problem. Is the gravitational attraction of a single particle that is observed as one would expect from classical physics (eg Newtonian gravity)? (Has it been proven experimentally?)
 
Xenoman said:
Thank you for your answer, I see the problem. Is the gravitational attraction of a single particle that is observed as one would expect from classical physics (eg Newtonian gravity)? (Has it been proven experimentally?)

Yes, it's been done with interference of neutrons. Which also answers your first question, I suppose.
 

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