Graduate Heavy Quark Propagators in HQET

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the construction of heavy quark propagators in Heavy Quark Effective Theory (HQET) and the challenges in applying the same logic to loop corrections. The heavy quark momentum is expressed as #p^{\mu}=Mv^{\mu}+k^{\mu}#, with the propagator derived from Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD) as #\slashedp+\slashedk+M(p−k)2−M2∼M(1+\slashedv)2Mv.k#. The confusion arises in handling loop momentum, particularly in the expression for loop corrections, where #q^{\mu}# cannot be assumed soft due to its range across all loop momentum regions. References to foundational texts such as Manohar & Wise and M.D. Schwartz provide context for the discussion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Heavy Quark Effective Theory (HQET)
  • Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD)
  • Loop corrections in quantum field theory
  • Momentum space representation in particle physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of heavy quark propagators in HQET
  • Explore loop corrections in Quantum Field Theory
  • Review the texts "Heavy Quark Physics" by Manohar & Wise and "Quantum Field Theory" by M.D. Schwartz
  • Investigate the implications of soft and hard momentum in particle interactions
USEFUL FOR

Particle physicists, theoretical physicists, and graduate students focusing on heavy quark dynamics and effective field theories.

Elmo
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TL;DR
A confusion about the Feynman rule for the HQET propagator.
I have a confusion about how the heavy quark propagators are constructed in HQET and how the loops (in the included figure) are constructed.
A standard sort of introduction and motivation to HQET (as in reviews and texts like Manohar & Wise and M.D Schwartz) is as follows :

The momentum of a heavy quark interacting with soft particles is #p^{\mu}=Mv^{\mu}+k^{\mu}# and the derivation of the heavy quark propagator from its corresponding form in QCD is thus :

\slashedp+\slashedk+M(p−k)2−M2∼M(1+\slashedv)2Mv.k . The thing which makes it tick is the fact that #k^{\mu}# is soft and #M# is hard. This is all fine but I dont understand how we can apply the same logic to get the following loop correction in the figure (which is also solved in multiple sources).
Σ∼∫dDq1[q2][v.(p+q)]If we write the same quark propagator from QCD and work onwards from that :

\slashedp+\slashedq+M(p+q)2−M2∼M(1+\slashedv)+\slashedqq2+2Mv.q
Here we cant take q to be soft can we, as its spans all regions of the loop momentum.
hq.png
 
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sorry, my original post did not render for some reason even though it did show up (mostly) correctly in the preview.
So here is the PDF file of the question.
 

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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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