LAHLH
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Hi,
I totally understand why [tex]\chi\psi=\chi^{a}\psi_{a}=-\psi_{a}\chi^{a}=\psi^{a}\chi_{a}=\psi\chi[/tex]. Where the first equality is just convention, the second is anticommutation of the fields, the third is due to [tex]\chi^{a}\psi_{a}=-\chi_{a}\psi^{a}[/tex] because of the [tex]\epsilon^{ab}[/tex].
But now if we look at the herm conj, as in Srednicki 35.26:
[tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=(\chi^{a}\psi_{a})^{\dag}[/tex]
Now this product is just a number, as the indices are completely summed over, so it should be totally legitimate for me to take [tex]\dag[/tex] to be just a regular c.c. *. (c.f. Avodyne's discussion at the end of my spinor indices thread a while back :https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=438291 in particular post #28)
[tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=(\chi^{a}\psi_{a})^{\dag}=(\chi^{a}\psi_{a})^{*}[/tex]
Now this is just equal to [tex](\chi^{a})^{*}(\psi_{a})^{*}[/tex], the dagger or star (which are the same thing on these components) converts these into right handed spinors, so now we have:
[tex](\chi^{\dag\dot{a}})(\psi^{\dag}_{\dot{a}})[/tex]
Now using anticommutation of these objects, and then using the suppressing convention for dotted indices:
[tex]- (\psi^{\dag}_{\dot{a}})(\chi^{\dag\dot{a}})[/tex]
[tex]=- \psi^{\dag}\chi^{\dag}[/tex]
So I have found that [tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=- \psi^{\dag}\chi^{\dag}[/tex]
Contrary to Srednicki, where [tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=+ \psi^{\dag}\chi^{\dag}[/tex]
Could anyone help me understand what has happened here? Thanks
I totally understand why [tex]\chi\psi=\chi^{a}\psi_{a}=-\psi_{a}\chi^{a}=\psi^{a}\chi_{a}=\psi\chi[/tex]. Where the first equality is just convention, the second is anticommutation of the fields, the third is due to [tex]\chi^{a}\psi_{a}=-\chi_{a}\psi^{a}[/tex] because of the [tex]\epsilon^{ab}[/tex].
But now if we look at the herm conj, as in Srednicki 35.26:
[tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=(\chi^{a}\psi_{a})^{\dag}[/tex]
Now this product is just a number, as the indices are completely summed over, so it should be totally legitimate for me to take [tex]\dag[/tex] to be just a regular c.c. *. (c.f. Avodyne's discussion at the end of my spinor indices thread a while back :https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=438291 in particular post #28)
[tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=(\chi^{a}\psi_{a})^{\dag}=(\chi^{a}\psi_{a})^{*}[/tex]
Now this is just equal to [tex](\chi^{a})^{*}(\psi_{a})^{*}[/tex], the dagger or star (which are the same thing on these components) converts these into right handed spinors, so now we have:
[tex](\chi^{\dag\dot{a}})(\psi^{\dag}_{\dot{a}})[/tex]
Now using anticommutation of these objects, and then using the suppressing convention for dotted indices:
[tex]- (\psi^{\dag}_{\dot{a}})(\chi^{\dag\dot{a}})[/tex]
[tex]=- \psi^{\dag}\chi^{\dag}[/tex]
So I have found that [tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=- \psi^{\dag}\chi^{\dag}[/tex]
Contrary to Srednicki, where [tex](\chi\psi)^{\dag}=+ \psi^{\dag}\chi^{\dag}[/tex]
Could anyone help me understand what has happened here? Thanks