Undergrad Homemorphism in quotient topology

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Quotient topology involves defining a topological space based on an equivalence relation on a set. To determine what a quotient space is homeomorphic to, one typically visualizes the space and constructs proofs, often requiring a continuous function and its inverse. For cases like the Möbius strip, graphical descriptions can aid in understanding but may not suffice for rigorous proofs without explicit parametrizations. The discussion highlights that while some quotient spaces can be described using visual or verbal methods, establishing homeomorphism often necessitates more formal approaches. Ultimately, the challenge lies in transitioning from descriptive representations to precise mathematical formulations.
elias001
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I have two general questions about the topic of quotient topology.. Suppose I have a set ##X## and I defined an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##X## and I want to know what quotient toplogical sapce is hoemeorphic to. I have included a list of definitions, lemmas, propositions and theorems from two different textbooks in the Background section below. Specifically the two question I have is one,

##Question 1## If given a set ##X## and an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##X##, sometimes an exercise in a topology text would ask the reader to identify what the quotient space is or what the equivalence relation defined on set ##X## is homeomorphic to. How does one usually go about such exercise. I assumed by visualizing or the process of identifying, it requires one to provide a proof.

##Question 2## Suppose in ##Question 1##, I know what the quotient topological space is but the construction can be only describe using picture/verbal descriptive type style proofs. To be specific, take the mobius strip, everyone has seen how they have seen a rectangular strip ##R## with direction arrows running along each of the four edges, and we have the equivalence relations ##(x,0)\sim (1-x,1)##, one is suppose to identify the opposite edges of the rectangular strip ##R## by doing a ##180## degree twist. Depending on the sophiscation of the textbook, a reader might be presented an parametric representation of the mobius strip, basically what one would see in a differential topology text,, in terms of charts. This last two points, are important because depending on the type of quotient topological space, a parametric representation of it might not always be readily know. So how does one go about showing homeomorphism with just a given equivalence relation.


Background

The following are from Topology by Murray Eisenberg and Elements of Algebraic Topology by: Anat Shastri

[Topology by Murray Eisenberg]

Lemma 1 Let ##\sim## be an equivalence relation on a topological space ##X##, and let ##p:X\to X/\sim## be the quotient map. Then the collection
$$T=\{V\subset X/\sim:p^{-1}(V)\text{ open in }X\}$$

is a topology on the quotient set ##X/\sim.##

Definition 1 The quotient of a topological space ##X## under an equivalence relation##\sim## is the topological space whose underlying set is ##X/\sim## and whose topology is the collection ##T## described above. This topology is called the quotient topology.

Proposition 1: Let ##p:X\to X/sim## be the quotient map induced by an equivalence relation ##\sim## on a topological space ##X.## Then the quotient topology is the greatest topology on ##X/\sim## making ##p## continuous.


Theorem 1: A map

$$g:X/\sim\to Y$$

from a quotient space ##X/\sim## into a topological space ##Y## is continuous if and only if its composite

$$g\circ p:X\to Y$$

with the quotient map ##p:X\to X/\sim## is continuous..

Theorem 2: Let ##p:X\to X/\sim## be the quotient map induced by an equivalence relation ##\sim## on a topological space ##X.## Let ##f:X\to Y## be a continuous map from ##X## into a topological space ##Y## that is constant on each equivalence class under ##\sim,## that is,

$$x\sim t\quad \Rightarrow\quad f(x)=f(y)\quad\quad (x,t,\in X).$$

Then there is a unique continuous map

$$f^{*}:X/\sim\to Y$$

such that

$$f^{*}\circ p=f.$$

Moreover:
##\quad (1)## The map ##f^{*}## is surjective if ##f## is surjective.
##\quad (2)## The map ##f^{*}## is injective if ##f## takes distinct values at representatives of different equivalence classes under ##\sim.##
##\quad (3)## The map ##f^{*}## is open if ##f## is injective. and the open subsets of ##Y## are those subsets ##W## of ##Y## for which ##f^{-1}(W)## is open in ##X.##

Proposition 2: Each continuous open surjection and each continuous closed surjection is a quotient map.

[Elements of Algebraic Topology by: Anat Shastri]

Let ##q:(X,\tau)\to (Y,\tau')## be a surjective map (i.e. continuous function) of topological spaces.

Lemma 2: The following statements are equivalent.

##(i)## ##U\in \tau'## iff ##q^{-1}(U)\in\tau.##
##(ii)## A function ##g:(Y,\tau')\to (Z,\tau'')## is continuous iff ##g\circ q## is continuous.
##(iii)## For a fixed ##\tau,\tau'## is the maximal topology on ##Y## such that ##q## is continuous.

Definition 2: Under the above conditions, we say ##(Y,\tau')## is a quotient space of ##(X,\tau)## and the map ##q## is called a quotient map.




Thank you in advance
 
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It should not be difficult to get from a graphical description to a parametrisation.

For example, for the Mobius strip one can take a line segment with centre on a circle of radius R such that the angle to the horizontal plane goes through a half rotation as the centre moves through a full rotation. That leads to something like
\begin{split}x &= (R + (u-\tfrac12)\cos (\pi v))\cos (2\pi v) \\y &= (R + (u-\tfrac12) \cos (\pi v))\sin (2\pi v) \\z &= R + (u-\tfrac12) \sin (\pi v). \end{split}
for R > 1.
 
@pasmith Is it always necessary to prove homeomorphism by finding explicit parametrization from graphical descripption, or can one do it by relying solely on the description based on equivalence relations?
 
A graphical description is not really a rigorous proof, although it might help you to find one.

Ultimately, showing that X/\sim is homeomorphic to Y requires finding a continuous function f: X/\sim \to Y and showing that it has a continuous inverse.

For example, showing that [0,1]/\sim where 0 \sim 1 and otherwise x \sim y \Leftrightarrow x = y is homeomorphic to S^1 can be done via the map [x] \mapsto (\cos (2\pi x), \sin (2\pi x)).
 
@pasmith what about the case of the klein bottle or roman surface? For the klein bottle, I only find how is parametrize in ##R^3## in two different books about differential forms.
 
elias001 said:
Questions

I have two general questions about the topic of quotient topology.. Suppose I have a set ##X## and I defined an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##X## and I want to know what quotient toplogical sapce is hoemeorphic to. I have included a list of definitions, lemmas, propositions and theorems from two different textbooks in the Background section below. Specifically the two question I have is one,

##Question 1## If given a set ##X## and an equivalence relation ##\sim## on ##X##, sometimes an exercise in a topology text would ask the reader to identify what the quotient space is or what the equivalence relation defined on set ##X## is homeomorphic to. How does one usually go about such exercise. I assumed by visualizing or the process of identifying, it requires one to provide a proof.

##Question 2## Suppose in ##Question 1##, I know what the quotient topological space is but the construction can be only describe using picture/verbal descriptive type style proofs. To be specific, take the mobius strip, everyone has seen how they have seen a rectangular strip ##R## with direction arrows running along each of the four edges, and we have the equivalence relations ##(x,0)\sim (1-x,1)##, one is suppose to identify the opposite edges of the rectangular strip ##R## by doing a ##180## degree twist. Depending on the sophiscation of the textbook, a reader might be presented an parametric representation of the mobius strip, basically what one would see in a differential topology text,, in terms of charts. This last two points, are important because depending on the type of quotient topological space, a parametric representation of it might not always be readily know. So how does one go about showing homeomorphism with just a given equivalence relation.


Background

The following are from Topology by Murray Eisenberg and Elements of Algebraic Topology by: Anat Shastri

[Topology by Murray Eisenberg]

Lemma 1 Let ##\sim## be an equivalence relation on a topological space ##X##, and let ##p:X\to X/\sim## be the quotient map. Then the collection
$$T=\{V\subset X/\sim:p^{-1}(V)\text{ open in }X\}$$

is a topology on the quotient set ##X/\sim.##

Definition 1 The quotient of a topological space ##X## under an equivalence relation##\sim## is the topological space whose underlying set is ##X/\sim## and whose topology is the collection ##T## described above. This topology is called the quotient topology.

Proposition 1: Let ##p:X\to X/sim## be the quotient map induced by an equivalence relation ##\sim## on a topological space ##X.## Then the quotient topology is the greatest topology on ##X/\sim## making ##p## continuous.


Theorem 1: A map

$$g:X/\sim\to Y$$

from a quotient space ##X/\sim## into a topological space ##Y## is continuous if and only if its composite

$$g\circ p:X\to Y$$

with the quotient map ##p:X\to X/\sim## is continuous..

Theorem 2: Let ##p:X\to X/\sim## be the quotient map induced by an equivalence relation ##\sim## on a topological space ##X.## Let ##f:X\to Y## be a continuous map from ##X## into a topological space ##Y## that is constant on each equivalence class under ##\sim,## that is,

$$x\sim t\quad \Rightarrow\quad f(x)=f(y)\quad\quad (x,t,\in X).$$

Then there is a unique continuous map

$$f^{*}:X/\sim\to Y$$

such that

$$f^{*}\circ p=f.$$

Moreover:
##\quad (1)## The map ##f^{*}## is surjective if ##f## is surjective.
##\quad (2)## The map ##f^{*}## is injective if ##f## takes distinct values at representatives of different equivalence classes under ##\sim.##
##\quad (3)## The map ##f^{*}## is open if ##f## is injective. and the open subsets of ##Y## are those subsets ##W## of ##Y## for which ##f^{-1}(W)## is open in ##X.##

Proposition 2: Each continuous open surjection and each continuous closed surjection is a quotient map.

[Elements of Algebraic Topology by: Anat Shastri]

Let ##q:(X,\tau)\to (Y,\tau')## be a surjective map (i.e. continuous function) of topological spaces.

Lemma 2: The following statements are equivalent.

##(i)## ##U\in \tau'## iff ##q^{-1}(U)\in\tau.##
##(ii)## A function ##g:(Y,\tau')\to (Z,\tau'')## is continuous iff ##g\circ q## is continuous.
##(iii)## For a fixed ##\tau,\tau'## is the maximal topology on ##Y## such that ##q## is continuous.

Definition 2: Under the above conditions, we say ##(Y,\tau')## is a quotient space of ##(X,\tau)## and the map ##q## is called a quotient map.




Thank you in advance
I don't think this is an easy question in general. Yhere is no magic answer. Every smooth manifold can be described as a quotient of patches of ##\mathbb R^n##. If this problem was mechanical then problems like the Poincare conjecture would be simple.

Now if you just want to embed the quotient space in ##\mathbb R^{2n}## then this is an easier question at least in the smooth category via the Whitney Embedding theorem.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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