MidgetDwarf
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- TL;DR
- For expectations of random variables. Relationship between E[X] n E[|X|]?
Greetings,
I am studying probability theory [non-measure theory] from a textbook.
I stumbled to the topic stating that Cauchy Distribution has no moments.
It was not proved, and I tried working it via direct calculation of the improper integral of E[X^n] for the case n=1.
Anyhow, I wanted to generalize this without success. I stumbled upon this thread here:
I really enjoyed the proof given StoneTemplePython. However, I am unsure of the following:
Why does E[|x|] diverges implies E[x] diverges?I believe this is the crux of the poof. Since it assumes, in my understanding, that having shown E[|X|] diverges, then applying the comparison test for improper integrals in the last line of that thread, then E[|X|^n] diverges.
How does this relate to E[X^n]?
. My hunch tells me that it has something to do with f is integrable iff |f| is integrable, and how we can decompose |f| into the positive and negative parts of f?
My knowledge of Measure Theory is very poor. So hopefully someone here can why.
I am studying probability theory [non-measure theory] from a textbook.
I stumbled to the topic stating that Cauchy Distribution has no moments.
It was not proved, and I tried working it via direct calculation of the improper integral of E[X^n] for the case n=1.
Anyhow, I wanted to generalize this without success. I stumbled upon this thread here:
How can I prove the Cauchy distribution has no moments?
##E(X^n)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{x^n}{\pi(1+x^2)}\ dx.##
I can prove myself, letting ##n=1## or ##n=2## that it does not have any moment. However, how would I prove for ALL ##n##, that the Cauchy distribution has no moments?
##E(X^n)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{x^n}{\pi(1+x^2)}\ dx.##
I can prove myself, letting ##n=1## or ##n=2## that it does not have any moment. However, how would I prove for ALL ##n##, that the Cauchy distribution has no moments?
- Neothilic
- Cauchy Distribution Expectation Moments
- Replies: 5
- Forum: Set Theory, Logic, Probability, Statistics
I really enjoyed the proof given StoneTemplePython. However, I am unsure of the following:
Why does E[|x|] diverges implies E[x] diverges?I believe this is the crux of the poof. Since it assumes, in my understanding, that having shown E[|X|] diverges, then applying the comparison test for improper integrals in the last line of that thread, then E[|X|^n] diverges.
How does this relate to E[X^n]?
. My hunch tells me that it has something to do with f is integrable iff |f| is integrable, and how we can decompose |f| into the positive and negative parts of f?
My knowledge of Measure Theory is very poor. So hopefully someone here can why.