I How does E[X] and E[|X|] relate?

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For expectations of random variables. Relationship between E[X] n E[|X|]?
Greetings,

I am studying probability theory [non-measure theory] from a textbook.

I stumbled to the topic stating that Cauchy Distribution has no moments.

It was not proved, and I tried working it via direct calculation of the improper integral of E[X^n] for the case n=1.

Anyhow, I wanted to generalize this without success. I stumbled upon this thread here:


I really enjoyed the proof given StoneTemplePython. However, I am unsure of the following:

Why does E[|x|] diverges implies E[x] diverges?I believe this is the crux of the poof. Since it assumes, in my understanding, that having shown E[|X|] diverges, then applying the comparison test for improper integrals in the last line of that thread, then E[|X|^n] diverges.

How does this relate to E[X^n]?

. My hunch tells me that it has something to do with f is integrable iff |f| is integrable, and how we can decompose |f| into the positive and negative parts of f?

My knowledge of Measure Theory is very poor. So hopefully someone here can why.
 
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Integral for even n diverges clearly to plus infinite. Integral for odd n is zero for integrand [-L,L]. However we do not have such a constraint thus the integral diverges plus or minus.
 
Let ##X_-## and ##X_+## denote the negative and positive parts of ##X##. Then ##E[X]=E[X_+]+E[X_-]## and ##E[|X|]=E[X_+]-E[X_-]##. If ##E[|X|]## is infinite or undefined, then one or both of ##E[X_+]## and ##E[X_-]## are infinite, so ##E[X]=E[X_+]+E[X_-]## also diverges.
I'm not sure about the higher orders, ##E[X^n]## for ##n\gt 1##. If ##X## is restricted to ##|X| \lt 1##, then those moments may exist.
 
Greetings, I am studying probability theory [non-measure theory] from a textbook. I stumbled to the topic stating that Cauchy Distribution has no moments. It was not proved, and I tried working it via direct calculation of the improper integral of E[X^n] for the case n=1. Anyhow, I wanted to generalize this without success. I stumbled upon this thread here: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-to-prove-the-cauchy-distribution-has-no-moments.992416/ I really enjoyed the proof...

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