How Does Qubit Orientation on the Bloch Sphere Indicate Quantum States?

Click For Summary
The Bloch Sphere represents qubit states as vectors, where any point on the sphere indicates a superposition of the basic states |0> and |1>. A vector at the equator (z=0) signifies an equal superposition of both states, while a vector at a 45-degree angle above the equator can be expressed mathematically as a specific superposition with varying coefficients. If a qubit is unaffected by external noise, it remains static on the Bloch Sphere only if the two states have the same energy; otherwise, it will precess over time. The discussion clarifies how to interpret qubit orientations and their mathematical representations in quantum mechanics. Understanding these concepts is crucial for grasping the behavior of qubits in quantum computing.
*FaerieLight*
Messages
43
Reaction score
0
There is something that I don't quite understand in relation to the Bloch Sphere representation of qubits. I've read that any vector on the sphere is a superposition of two basic states, like spin up and spin down, denoted by |1> and |0>.
So does this mean that if the vector is at z=0 (pointing towards the equator), then it has neither spin-up nor spin-down components?
If the vector is pointing up 45 degrees above the equator towards |1>, then how is this represented by equations as a superposition of |1> and |0> ?
Also, if a qubit is not affected by external noise, then does it remain a static unprecessing vector on the Bloch Sphere?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
*FaerieLight* said:
So does this mean that if the vector is at z=0 (pointing towards the equator), then it has neither spin-up nor spin-down components?
No, it means that it is an equal superposition of spin-up and spin down,
$$
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left[ |0 \rangle + e^{i \phi} | 1 \rangle \right]
$$
*FaerieLight* said:
If the vector is pointing up 45 degrees above the equator towards |1>, then how is this represented by equations as a superposition of |1> and |0> ?
The general equation is
$$
\cos \left( \frac{\theta}{2} \right) |0 \rangle + \sin \left( \frac{\theta}{2} \right) e^{i \phi} | 1 \rangle
$$
so ##\theta = 135^\circ = 3\pi/4## results in
$$
\frac{\sqrt{2 - \sqrt{2}}}{2} |0 \rangle + \frac{\sqrt{2 + \sqrt{2}}}{2} e^{i \phi} | 1 \rangle
$$
so a superposition that is more ##|1 \rangle## than ##|0 \rangle##.

*FaerieLight* said:
Also, if a qubit is not affected by external noise, then does it remain a static unprecessing vector on the Bloch Sphere?
Only if the two states have the same energy. This is not true in most cases, so one will see a precession as the angle ##\phi## will be time-dependent.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
653
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
762
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K