High School How is the Wave Function Derived in Quantum Mechanics?

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The discussion centers on the derivation of the wave function in quantum mechanics, specifically the expression Ψ = e^(i(kx - ωt)). Participants debate whether this wave function represents a free particle or the electron in a hydrogen atom, with some asserting that the Schrödinger equation is derived from the wave function rather than the other way around. It is noted that many introductory texts present the Schrödinger equation as a fundamental assumption, often justifying it through the wave function of a free particle. The conversation hints at a broader debate regarding the logical starting point for non-relativistic quantum mechanics. Ultimately, the need for a clear understanding of how the wave function is derived remains a focal point of the discussion.
Nipuna Weerasekara
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Everybody knows what is the Wave Function is.
$$\Psi=\space e^{i(kx-\omega t)}$$
or
$$\Psi=\space cos{(kx-\omega t)} \space - \space isin{(kx-\omega t)}$$

But can anyone tell me how it is derived. Since Schrodinger Equation is derived so easily using this Wave Function. I think it is necessary to understand how the Wave Function is derived.
 
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Nipuna Weerasekara said:
Everybody knows what is the Wave Function is.
$$\Psi=\space e^{i(kx-\omega t)}$$
or
$$\Psi=\space cos{(kx-\omega t)} \space - \space isin{(kx-\omega t)}$$
The wave function of what? You have just given the wave function for a free particle. In many other cases the wave function will be completely different and behave different wrt time.
 
This is the wave function I found when proving the Schrodinger equation. I think this is the wave function of the electron in Hydrogen atom.
 
Nipuna Weerasekara said:
I think this is the wave function of the electron in Hydrogen atom.

No, it's definitely not a wave function of electron in hydrogen. You need to read more carefully your sources.
 
Alright, let us think this is a Wave function of a particle for the time being, can you tell me how it is derived.
 
Nipuna Weerasekara said:
Alright, let us think this is a Wave function of a particle for the time being, can you tell me how it is derived.
Classically, it is the solution to the EOM of the simple harmonic oscillator.
 
Nipuna Weerasekara said:
Since Schrodinger Equation is derived so easily using this Wave Function.
It's the other way around. One derives the wave function for a particular system (e.g. a free particle) by solving Schrödinger's equation for that system.

Many introductory textbooks "justify" the Schrödinger equation or "motivate" it or "make it plausible" by assuming that a free particle with a definite momentum must be represented by a simple harmonic wave ##\Psi(x,t) = Ae^{i(kx - \omega t)}##, but fundamentally, the Schrödinger equation comes first. Many or most elementary treaments of QM simply present the SE as a fundamental assumption of the theory.

(I predict that we will now have a long debate about what is the "real" logical starting point for non-relativistic quantum mechanics. :-p)
 
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jtbell said:
Many introductory textbooks "justify" the Schrödinger equation or "motivate" it or "make it plausible" by assuming that a free particle with a definite momentum must be represented by a simple harmonic wave Ψ(x,t)=Aei(kx−ωt)
jtbell said:
(I predict that we will now have a long debate about what is the "real" logical starting point for non-relativistic quantum mechanics. :-p)

I think the best derivation is founded on Universty Physics With Modern Physics by Sears and Zemansky. I did not find any derivation even in more advanced textbooks on QM, because they usually apresents the wave function only as an postulate.
 

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