How to Derive the Time Evolution of Expectation Values in Quantum Mechanics?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on deriving the time evolution of expectation values in quantum mechanics using Dirac notation. The key equation presented is \(\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|\hat{A}|\varphi> = \frac{i}{\hbar}<\varphi|[\hat{H},\hat{A}]|\varphi>\), where \(\hat{A}\) does not explicitly depend on time. Participants clarify the use of the Hamiltonian operator, \(\hat{H}\), and the importance of the product rule in differentiating expectation values. The final result confirms that if \(\hat{A}\) has no explicit time dependence, the equation simplifies to the commutation relation involving \(\hat{H}\) and \(\hat{A}\).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Dirac notation in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with Hamiltonian operators and their role in quantum systems
  • Knowledge of commutation relations and their implications
  • Proficiency in calculus, particularly differentiation of operators
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Schrödinger equation from the Hamiltonian operator
  • Learn about the implications of time-dependent operators in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the concept of expectation values and their significance in quantum theory
  • Investigate advanced commutation relations and their applications in quantum mechanics
USEFUL FOR

Quantum mechanics students, physicists, and researchers interested in the mathematical foundations of quantum theory and the dynamics of quantum systems.

maximus123
Messages
48
Reaction score
0
Hi everyone, my problem is this
Using Dirac notation show that

\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|\hat{A}|\varphi> = \frac{i}{\hbar}<\varphi|[\hat{H},\hat{A}]|\varphi>

where A does not explicitly depend on t

I am given as a hint that the hamiltonian operator in Dirac notation is
i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}|\varphi>=\hat{H}|\varphi>

and that the conjugate expression is

-i\hbar\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|=<\varphi|\hat{H}

I'm a bit stumped, I know that the left hand side of the equation is the time derivative of the expectation value of operator A but as for the right hand side. I tried to expand the commutator as normal as if it were acting on the function (ket) |phi> but this came out to be zero which if true would surely make the whole RHS zero, which makes me think I don't understand what the rhs means. Any help would be appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Perhaps start with the LHS first and rewrite $$\frac{d}{dt} \langle \hat{A} \rangle = \frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi | \hat{A} | \psi \rangle = \frac{d}{dt} \int dx\, \psi^* \hat{A}\, \psi$$

The RHS can be zero but only if ##\hat{A}## and ##\hat{H}## were to commute, but this was not given.
 
Last edited:
Use the product rule one the left hand side first.
Then impose the hint to rewrite some of the terms.
It should become quite clear almost immediately.

An extra question, does it change a lot if the operator A does explicitly depend on time?
 
Thanks to both of you, I think I have it

\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|\hat{A}|\varphi> = <\varphi|\hat{A}\frac{d}{dt}|\varphi> + \hat{A}\varphi>\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|

then from the hints

\frac{d}{dt}(|\varphi>) = \frac{\hat{H}}{i\hbar}( |\varphi>) and \frac{d}{dt}(<\varphi|) = -\frac{\hat{H}}{i\hbar}( <\varphi|)

Substitute those in, do a bit of simplifying and rearranging then I got the correct answer. Thanks a bunch

I do have another question if I may

I have to show how we get the commutation identity [\hat{A},\hat{B^{2}}]=[\hat{A},\hat{B}]\hat{B} + \hat{B}[\hat{A},\hat{B}] but am having trouble, I'd be very grateful for any suggestions in the right direction.

Thanks again
 
maximus123 said:
I have to show how we get the commutation identity [\hat{A},\hat{B^{2}}]=[\hat{A},\hat{B}]\hat{B} + \hat{B}[\hat{A},\hat{B}] but am having trouble, I'd be very grateful for any suggestions in the right direction.

Thanks again
Try working with the RHS this time and show that it reduces to the LHS.
Also, \frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|\hat{A}|\varphi> = <\varphi|\hat{A}\frac{d}{dt}|\varphi> + \hat{A}\varphi>\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|

in the second term, I think that should be ##\left( \frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi | \right) \, \hat{A} \psi,## when you are dealing with operators, the ordering matters.
 
Last edited:
Thanks for the help with the last question, hadn't realized it would be so easy, however for my original problem, what I meant in that term you flagged up is

(\hat{A}|\varphi>)(\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|)

Is this not correct? I thought

(\hat{A}|\varphi>)(\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|) = (\frac{d}{dt}<\varphi|)(\hat{A}|\varphi>)

Is that not right?

Thanks again
 
No it's not right. It's like \mathbf{v}^T\mathbf{w} \neq \mathbf{w} \mathbf{v}^T

The first results in a scalar (it's a representation of an inner product), the second results in a higher order tensor (or in other words it's an outer product).

\langle a \mid b \rangle is a scalar.
\mid a \rangle \langle b\mid is an operator that "eats" up \mid b \rangle and results in some multiple of \mid a \rangle.
 
First, if you assume the operator has an explicit time dependence, you can write:
\frac{d}{dt}\langle \phi |A(x,t)|\phi\rangle = \langle \frac{d\phi}{dt}|A|\phi\rangle +\langle \phi|\frac{dA}{dt}|\phi \rangle +\langle \phi |A|\frac{d \phi}{dt}\rangle

Then, the R.H.S. can be simplified to:
\frac{1}{-i\hbar}\langle \phi |HA|\phi \rangle + \frac{1}{i\hbar}\langle \phi |AH|\phi \rangle +\langle \frac{dA}{dt}\rangle

The final result is:
\frac{i}{\hbar}\langle [H,A]\rangle + \langle \frac{dA}{dt}\rangle

Drop the dA/dt for no explicit time dependence.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
31
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K