Inequality Truth: X1 < X2 & X > 0

  • Context: Undergrad 
  • Thread starter Thread starter EngWiPy
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Inequality
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the inequality involving probabilities of random variables, specifically examining whether the inequality Pr[X1 < x] < Pr[X2 < x] holds true under the condition that X1 < X2 for x > 0. The scope includes theoretical considerations of probability distributions and properties of order statistics.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the inequality, suggesting that it may not hold as Pr[X1 < x] and Pr[X2 < x] can be equal for some distributions.
  • Another participant introduces a scenario with n independent and identically distributed random variables, proposing a related inequality involving the sum of the largest L numbers and the arithmetic mean.
  • Some participants assert that the proposed inequality regarding the probabilities is always true, while also noting that the probabilities might be equal in certain cases, providing an example of a constant random variable.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the initial inequality, with some asserting it can be equal for certain distributions, while others agree on the validity of the derived inequality involving sums and means. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the initial inequality.

Contextual Notes

There are limitations regarding the assumptions made about the distributions of the random variables and the conditions under which the inequalities hold. The discussion does not clarify the specific types of distributions considered.

EngWiPy
Messages
1,361
Reaction score
61
Hi,

Is the following inequality true for x>0:

Pr[X1<x]<Pr[X2<x] for X1<X2?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No, they can be equal for some distributions.
 
disregardthat said:
No, they can be equal for some distributions.

Ok, suppose we have n independent and identically distributed random variables x1,x2,...,xn. There is a fact that for positive numbers, the sum of the largest L<n numbers is greater than or equal the arithmetic mean multiplied by L, i.e.:

[tex]\sum_{i=1}^Lx_{(i)}\geq\frac{L}{n}\sum_{i=1}^nx_i[/tex]

where [tex]x^{(i)}[/tex] are the order statistics in descending order. Then is it true to say that:
[tex]\text{Pr}\left[\sum_{i=1}^Lx_{(i)}<x\right]\leq\text{Pr}\left[\frac{L}{n}\sum_{i=1}^nx_i<x\right][/tex]
 
Yes, that's always true. What disregardthat was pointing out is simply that the probabilities might be equal, which you have in this post but didn't have in your OP. For example consider the stupid random variable which always takes the value of 1. Then the sum of the L largest is L, and L/n*mean is L as well. so your probabilities are either both 0 or both 1 depending on what the value of x is
 
Office_Shredder said:
Yes, that's always true. What disregardthat was pointing out is simply that the probabilities might be equal, which you have in this post but didn't have in your OP. For example consider the stupid random variable which always takes the value of 1. Then the sum of the L largest is L, and L/n*mean is L as well. so your probabilities are either both 0 or both 1 depending on what the value of x is

I forgot to include it. Thanks
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 54 ·
2
Replies
54
Views
7K
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
927
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
1K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K