EngWiPy
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Hi,
Is the following inequality true for x>0:
Pr[X1<x]<Pr[X2<x] for X1<X2?
Is the following inequality true for x>0:
Pr[X1<x]<Pr[X2<x] for X1<X2?
The discussion revolves around the inequality involving probabilities of random variables, specifically examining whether the inequality Pr[X1 < x] < Pr[X2 < x] holds true under the condition that X1 < X2 for x > 0. The scope includes theoretical considerations of probability distributions and properties of order statistics.
Participants express differing views on the initial inequality, with some asserting it can be equal for certain distributions, while others agree on the validity of the derived inequality involving sums and means. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the initial inequality.
There are limitations regarding the assumptions made about the distributions of the random variables and the conditions under which the inequalities hold. The discussion does not clarify the specific types of distributions considered.
disregardthat said:No, they can be equal for some distributions.
Office_Shredder said:Yes, that's always true. What disregardthat was pointing out is simply that the probabilities might be equal, which you have in this post but didn't have in your OP. For example consider the stupid random variable which always takes the value of 1. Then the sum of the L largest is L, and L/n*mean is L as well. so your probabilities are either both 0 or both 1 depending on what the value of x is